Miss. R. Civ. P. 26
A party may obtain without the required showing a statement concerning the action or its subject matter previously made by that party. Upon request, a person not a party may obtain without the required showing a statement concerning the action or its subject matter previously made by that person. If the request is refused, the person may move for a court order. Rule 37(a)(4) applies to the award of expenses incurred in relation to the motion. For purposes of this paragraph, a statement previously made is:
Any objections or additions to the items contained in the request shall be served and filed no later than ten days after service of the request.
Following the discovery conference, the court shall enter an order fixing the issues; establishing a plan and schedule of discovery; setting limitations upon discovery, if any; and determining such other matters, including the allocation of expenses, as are necessary for the proper management of discovery in the case.
Subject to the right of a party who properly moves for a discovery conference to prompt convening of the conference, the court may combine the discovery conference with a pretrial conference authorized by Rule 16.
The court may impose sanctions for the failure of a party or counsel without good cause to have cooperated in the framing of an appropriate discovery plan by agreement. Upon a showing of good cause, any order entered pursuant to this subdivision may be altered or amended.
Miss. R. Civ. P. 26
Advisory Committee Historical Note
Effective January 1. 2020, M.R.C.P. 26 was amended so as to include subparagraph (g).
Effective January 1. 2020, Rule 26(b) was amended. Rule 26(b)(4) was amended so as to provide for two-tiered discovery regarding witnesses who will offer expert testimony at trial. The amended rule authorizes more detailed interrogatories concerning expert witnesses who are retained or specially employed and more general interrogatories concerning other witnesses who will provide expert testimony. The amendment also authorizes depositions of any witness who will provide expert testimony at trial. Rule 26(b) was amended so that certain communications between a party and a party's expert who has been retained or specially employed to provide expert testimony at trial are deemed trial preparation material. Rule 26(b)(5) governing discovery of electronically stored information was amended so as to refer to "electronically stored information" rather than "data or information in electronic or magnetic form." The amendment also provides a nonexhaustive list of the types of conditions a judge may place on electronic discovery. Rule 26(b) was further amended so as to include subsection (6), which requires a responding party to generally describe information withheld from discovery based an allegation of privilege or trial preparation material and established a process to deal with inadvertent production of privileged or trial preparation material.
Effective May 29, 2003, Rule 26(b) was amended by adding subsection (5) governing discovery of data or information in electronic or magnetic form.
Effective April 13, 2000, Rule 26(c) was amended to allow the court on its own motion to convene a discovery conference, 753-754 So. 2d XVII (West Miss.Cas. 2000).
Effective March 13, 1991, Rule 26(b)(1)(ii) was amended to delete the oral testimony of witnesses from the listing of matter that might be discovered by a party. Rule 26(d) was amended to provide that in the case of depositions protective orders might be made by the court that issued a subpoena therefor. 574-576 So. 2d XXIII (West Miss. Cas. 1991).
Effective March 1, 1989, Rule 26(b)(1) and Rule 26(f)(1) were amended to provide for the identification of (and supplementation of the prior identification of) those, in addition to experts, who may be called as witnesses at the trial. 536-538 So. 2d XXIV (West Miss. Cas. 1989).
Advisory Committee Notes
Rule 26(b)(2)limits discovery to "any matter, not privileged, which is relevant to the issues raised by the claims or defenses of any party." Earlier precedent authorized discovery of any matter, not privileged, relevant to the "subject matter" of the case. The current rule limiting discovery to the issues raised by any claim or defense was intended to narrow the scope of discovery.
Rule 26(b)(4)(A) establishes a two-tiered procedure for discovery concerning witnesses who will provide expert testimony at trial. With respect to retained and specially employed expert witnesses who are expected to testify at trial, the rule authorizes more detailed interrogatories than those permitted concerning other expert witnesses expected to testify at trial because a party can expect retained and specially employed expert witnesses to fully cooperate during discovery and trial. Thus, the rule authorizes interrogatories requesting not only a statement of the opinions the expert is expected to off er and the basis and reasons therefore, but also a statement of the facts and data considered, not just those relied upon, by the expert as well as information concerning the witness's qualifications, publications and previous expert testimony. Although Rule 26(b)(4)(A)(ii) authorizes interrogatories concerning exhibits that will be used to support or illustrate a retained or specially employed expert witness's opinion expected to be offered at trial, a complete response to such an interrogatory may not be possible until closer to trial because some such exhibits may not be created until they are actually needed for trial. Thus, a response or supplemented response concerning such exhibits should not be deemed untimely if it was reasonably made in advance of trial. Rule 26(b)(4)(A)(iii) establishes a more limited scope for interrogatories concerning expert witnesses who were not retained or specially employed but who are expected to testify at trial. Treating physicians and public accident investigators will often offer expert testimony at trial even though they have not been retained or specially employed by a party. The more limited duty to respond to interrogatories concerning this category of experts is based upon the recognition that some such witnesses may not fully cooperate with the party who intends to call them at trial thereby making it difficult or impossible for the party intending to call such witness at trial to fully and adequately respond to interrogatories reguesting the more detailed information that is discoverable with respect to retained or specially employed expert witnesses expected to testify at trial. A response under Rule 26{b)(4 )(A)(iii) is sufficient if it gives reasonable notice of the expert's testimony, taking into account the limitations of the party's knowledge of the facts known by and the opinions held by the expert.
Rule 26(b)(4)(C) & (D) grant trial preparation material or "work product" protection to draft responses to expert interrogatories, drafts of expert disclosures, and certain communications between the lawyer and the expert {or between the representative of the lawyer and the expert) in an effort to avoid costly. and oftentimes inefficient. discovery and to encourage more open and robust communication between the attorney and expert so that the attorney and expert may come to a better mutual understanding of the case. The protection is not absolute. Discovery may be had in the three excepted areas. In addition, pursuant to Rule 26(b)(3), a party may overcome the trial preparation material protection by showing a substantial need for the material in preparation of the case and an inability to obtain the substantial equivalent without undue hardship. The protection is not meant to foreclose inquiry into whether the expert explored other theories in the case at hand: whether the expert has ever explored other theories that were not explored in the case at hand, and if so why such theories were not explored in the case at hand: whether the expert considered any facts which were not relied upon and, if so. why such facts were not relied upon: whether any tests were run or models developed other than those disclosed in interrogatory responses and the results of such tests and/or models: and whether anybody other than the party's attorney provided support or participation in framing the opinion.
Rule 26(b)(5) governs discovery of electronically stored information and provides that a party may initially refuse to produce electronically stored information from a source that is not reasonably accessible because of undue burden or cost. The rule further provides, however, that a court may grant a motion to compel discovery from such sources upon a showing of good cause after taking into account factors such as the burden. expense and likely benefit of such discovery. The rule explicitly authorizes a court to order the requesting party to pay for some or all of the costs associated with discovery of electronically stored information from a source that is not reasonably accessible.
Rule26(b)(5) requires a party withholding information based on a claim of privilege or trial preparation material to generally describe such information so as to enable the requesting party to assess the claim. It also establishes a procedure to govern inadvertent disclosure of privileged or trial preparation material.
Rule 26(c) authorizes the court to hold a discovery conference and thereafter enter an order governing discovery. The rule grants the court discretion to limit discovery and to allocate some or all of the expense of discovery to the reguesting party when appropriate.
Rule 26(d) grants a court discretion to enter a protective order, among other things, prohibiting or limiting discovery after considering factors such as burden, cost, and likely benefit of such discovery.
Rule 26(f) imposes a duty to supplement. The duty to supplement, while imposed on a party, applies whether the additional or corrective information is learned by the client or by the attorney. Supplementations need not be made as each new item of information is learned but should be made at appropriate intervals during the discovery period, and with special promptness as the trial date approaches. It may be useful for any scheduling order to specify the time or times when supplementations should be made. The obligation to supplement responses to formal discovery requests applies to interrogatories, requests for production, and requests for admissions, but not ordinarily to deposition testimony. However, with respect to retained or specially employed experts, changes in the opinions expressed by the expert, whether in response to an interrogatory, an expert disclosure, or a deposition, are subject to a duty of supplemental disclosure. The obligation to supplement applies whenever a party learns that its prior disclosures or responses are in some material respect incomplete or incorrect. There is, however, no obligation to provide supplemental or corrective information that has been otherwise made known to the parties in writing or during the discovery process, as when a witness not previously disclosed is identified during the taking of a deposition or when an expert during a deposition corrects information contained in an earlier report.
M.R.C.P. 26(g) imposes an affirmative duty to engage in pretrial discovery in a responsible manner that is consistent with the spirit and pumoses of Rules 26 through 3 7. In addition. Rule 26(g) is designed to curb discovery abuse by explicitly encouraging the imposition of sanctions. The subdivision provides a deterrent to both excessive discoverv and evasion bv imposing a certification requirement that obliges each attorney to stop and think about the legitimacy of a discovery request, a response thereto, or an obiection. The term "response" includes answers to interrogatories and to requests to admit as well as responses to production requests.
If primary responsibilityfor conducting discoveryis to continue to rest with the litigants, they must be obliged to act responsibly and avoid abuse. Although the certification duty requires the lawyer to pause and consider the reasonableness of his request, response, or objection, it is not meant to discourage or restrict necessary and legitimate discovery. The rule simply requires that the attorney make a reasonable inquiry into the factual basis of his response, request, or objection.
The duty to make a "reasonable inquiry" is satisfied if the investigation undertaken by the attorney and the conclusions drawn therefrom are reasonable under the circumstances. It is an objective standard similar to the one imposed by Rule 11. In making the inquiry, the attorney may rely on assertions bv the client and on communications with other counsel in the case as long as that reliance is appropriate under the circumstances. Ultimately, what is reasonable is a matter for the court to decide on the totality of the circumstances.
M.R.C.P. 26(g) does not require the signing attorney to certify the truthfulness of the client's factual responses to a discovery request. Rather, the signature certifies that the lawyer has made a reasonable effort to assure that the client has provided all the information and documents available to him that are responsive to the discovery demand Thus, the lawyer's certification under M.R.C.P. 6(g) should be distinguished from the requirement that a responding party must sign interrogatory responses under oath pursuant to M.R.C.P. 33(b).
Nor does the rule require a party or an attorney to disclose privileged communications or work product in order to show that a discovery request, response, or objection is substantially justified. The signing requirement means that everydiscoveryrequest, response, or objection should be grounded on a theory that is reasonable under the precedents or a good faith belief as to what should be the law. This standard is heavily dependent on the circumstances of each case. The certification speaks as of the time it is made. The duty to supplement discovery responses continues to be governed by M.R.C.P. 26(e).
The premise of Rule 26(g) is that imposing sanctions on attorneys who fail to meet the rule's standards will significantlyreduce abuse byimposing disadvantages therefor. The rule mandates that sanctions be imposed on attorneys who fail to meet the standards established in the first portion of Rule 26(g). The nature of the sanction is a matter of judicial discretion to be exercised in light of the particular circumstances. The sanctioning process must comport with due process requirements. The kind of notice and hearing required will depend on the facts of the case and the severity of the sanction being considered. To prevent the proliferation of the sanction procedure and to avoid multiple hearings, discovery in any sanction proceeding normally should be permitted only when it is clearly required by the interests of justice. In most cases the court will be aware of the circumstances and only a brief hearing should be necessary.
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