6 Colo. Code Regs. § 1007-1-18-A
Introduction: Every applicant for a license to possess and use radioactive material in conjunction with uranium or thorium milling, or byproduct material at sites formerly associated with such milling, is required by the provisions of 18.3 to include in a license application proposed specifications relating to milling operations and the disposition of tailings or wastes resulting from such milling activities. This appendix establishes technical, ownership, and long-term site surveillance criteria relating to the siting, operation, decontamination, decommissioning, and reclamation of mills and tailings or waste systems and sites at which such mills and systems are located.
As used in this appendix, the term "as low as is reasonably achievable" has the same meaning as in 1.2.2.
In many cases, flexibility is provided in the criteria to allow achieving an optimum tailings disposal program on a site-specific basis. However, in such cases the objectives, technical alternatives and concerns which must be taken into account in developing a tailings program are identified. As provided by the provisions of 18.3, applications for licenses must clearly demonstrate how the criteria have been addressed.
The specifications shall be developed considering the expected full capacity of tailings or waste systems and the lifetime of mill operations. Where later expansions of systems or operations may be likely (for example, where large quantities of ore now marginally uneconomical may be stockpiled), the amenability of the disposal system to accommodate increased capacities without degradation in long-term stability and other performance factors shall be evaluated.
Licensees or applicants may propose to the Department alternatives to meet the specific requirements in this Appendix. The alternative proposals may take into account local or regional conditions, including geology, topography, hydrology, and meteorology. The Department may find that the proposed alternatives meet the Department's requirements if the alternatives will achieve a level of stabilization and containment of the sites concerned and a level of protection for public health, safety, and the environment from radiological and nonradiological hazards associated with the site, which is equivalent to, to the extent practicable, or more stringent than the level which would be achieved by the requirements of this Appendix and the standards promulgated by the Environmental Protection Agency in 40 CFR Part 192, Subparts D and E. Proposed alternatives to specific regulations in this Part 18 require notice and opportunity for hearing before the NRC.
All site-specific licensing decisions based on the criteria in this Appendix or alternatives proposed by licensees or applicants will take into account the risk to the public health and safety and the environment with due consideration to the economic costs involved and any other factors the Department determines to be appropriate. In implementing this Appendix, the Department will consider "practicable" and "reasonably achievable" as equivalent terms. Decisions involving these terms will take into account the state of technology and the economics of improvements in relation to benefits to the public health and safety, and other societal and socioeconomic considerations, and in relation to the utilization of atomic energy in the public interest.
Criterion 1.
Criterion 1A. The general goal or broad objective in siting and design decisions is permanent isolation of tailings and associated contaminants by minimizing disturbance and dispersion by natural forces, and to do so without ongoing maintenance. For practical reasons, specific siting decisions and design standards must involve finite times (e.g., the longevity design standard in Criterion 6). The following site features which will contribute to such a goal or objective must be considered in selecting among alternative tailings disposal sites or judging the adequacy of existing tailings sites:
(1) Remoteness from populated areas;
(2) Hydrologic and other natural conditions as they contribute to continued immobilization and isolation of contaminants from ground-water sources; and
(3) Potential for minimizing erosion, disturbance, and dispersion by natural forces over the long-term.
Criterion 1B. The site selection process must be an optimization to the maximum extent reasonably achievable in terms of the features in Criterion 1A.
Criterion 1C. In the selection of disposal sites, primary emphasis must be given to isolation of tailings or wastes, a matter having long-term impacts, as opposed to consideration only of short-term convenience or benefits, such as minimization of transportation or land acquisition costs. While isolation of tailings will be a function of both site and engineering design, overriding consideration must be given to siting features given the long-term nature of the tailings hazards.
Criterion 1D. Tailings should be disposed of in a manner that no active maintenance is required to preserve conditions of the site.
Criterion 2.
To avoid proliferation of small waste disposal sites and thereby reduce perpetual surveillance obligations, byproduct material, from in situ extraction operations, such as residues from solution evaporation or contaminated control processes, and wastes from small remote above ground extraction operations shall be disposed of at existing large mill tailings disposal sites; unless considering the nature of the wastes, such as their volume and specific activity and the costs and environmental impacts of transporting the wastes to a large disposal site, such offsite disposal is demonstrated to be impracticable or the advantages of onsite burial clearly outweigh the benefits of reducing the perpetual surveillance obligations.
Criterion 3.
The "prime option" for disposal of tailings is placement below grade, either in mines or specially excavated pits (that is, where the need for any specially constructed retention structure is eliminated). The evaluation of alternative sites and disposal methods performed by mill operators in support of their proposed tailings disposal program (provided in applicants' environmental assessment) must reflect serious consideration of this disposal mode. In some instances, below grade disposal may not be the most environmentally sound approach, such as might be the case if a ground-water formation is relatively close to the surface or not very well isolated by overlying soils and rock. Also, geologic and topographic conditions might make full below grade burial impracticable: For example, bedrock may be sufficiently near the surface that blasting would be required to excavate a disposal pit at excessive cost, and more suitable alternative sites are not available. Where full below grade burial is not practicable, the size of retention structures, and size and steepness of slopes associated with exposed embankments must be minimized by excavation to the maximum extent reasonably achievable or appropriate given the geologic and hydrologic conditions at a site. In these cases, it must be demonstrated that an above grade disposal program will provide reasonably equivalent isolation of the tailings from natural erosional forces.
Criterion 4.
The following site and design criteria must be adhered to whether tailings or wastes are disposed of above or below grade.
Criterion 4A. Upstream rainfall catchment areas must be minimized to decrease erosion potential and the size of the floods, which could erode or wash out sections of the tailings disposal area.
Criterion 4B. Topographic features should provide good wind protection.
Criterion 4C. Embankment and cover slopes must be relatively flat after final stabilization to minimize erosion potential and to provide conservative factors of safety assuring long-term stability. The broad objective should be to contour final slopes to grades which are as close as possible to those which would be provided if tailings were disposed of below grade: this could, for example, lead to slopes of about 10 horizontal to 1 vertical (10h:1v) or less steep. In general, slopes should not be steeper than about 5h:1v. Where steeper slopes are proposed, reasons why a slope less steep than 5h:1v would be impracticable should be provided and compensating factors and conditions, which make such slopes acceptable, should be identified.
Criterion 4D. A full self-sustaining vegetative cover must be established or rock cover employed to reduce wind and water erosion to negligible levels.
(1) Where a full vegetative cover is not likely to be self-sustaining due to climatic or other conditions, such as in semi-arid and arid regions, rock cover must be employed on slopes of the impoundment system. The Department will consider relaxing this requirement for extremely gentle slopes such as those, which may exist on the top of the pile.
(2) The following factors must be considered in establishing the final rock cover design to avoid displacement of rock particles by human and animal traffic or by natural process, and to preclude undercutting and piping:
(a) Shape, size, composition, and gradation of rock particles (excepting bedding material average particles size must be at least cobble size or greater);
(b) Rock cover thickness and zoning of particles by size; and
(c) Steepness of underlying slopes.
(3) Individual rock fragments must be dense, sound, and resistant to abrasion, and must be free from cracks, seams, and other defects that would tend to unduly increase their destruction by water and frost actions. Weak, friable, or laminated aggregate may not be used.
(4) Rock covering of slopes may be unnecessary where top covers are very thick (on the order of 10m or greater); impoundment slopes are very gentle (on the order of 10h:1v or less); bulk cover materials have inherently favorable erosion resistance characteristics; and, there is negligible drainage catchment area upstream of the pile and good wind protection as described in Criteria 4A and 4B.
(5) Furthermore, all impoundment surfaces must be contoured to avoid areas of concentrated surface runoff or abrupt or sharp changes in slope gradient. In addition to rock cover on slopes, areas toward which surface runoff might be directed must be well protected with substantial rock cover (rip rap). In addition to providing for stability of the impoundment system itself, overall stability, erosion potential, and geomorphology of surrounding terrain must be evaluated to assure that there are not ongoing or potential processes, such as gully erosion, which would lead to impoundment instability.
Criterion 4E. The impoundment may not be located near a capable fault that could cause a maximum credible earthquake larger than that which the impoundment could reasonably be expected to withstand. As used in this criterion, the term "capable fault" has the same meaning as defined in section III(g) of Appendix A of 10 CFR Part 100 . The term "maximum credible earthquake" means that earthquake which would cause the maximum vibratory ground motion based upon an evaluation of earthquake potential considering the regional and local geology and seismology and specific characteristics of local subsurface material.
Criterion 4F. The impoundment, where feasible, should be designed to incorporate features, which will promote deposition. For example, design features, which promote deposition of sediment suspended in any runoff, which flows into the impoundment area, might be utilized; the object of such a design feature would be to enhance the thickness of cover over time.
Criterion 5.
Criteria 5A-5D and Criterion 10 incorporate the basic ground-water protection standards imposed by the Environmental Protection Agency in 40 CFR Part 192 , Subparts D and E (48 FR 45926; October 7, 1983) which apply during operations and prior to the end of closure. Groundwater monitoring to comply with these standards is required by Criterion 7.
Criterion 5A.
(1) The primary ground-water protection standard is a design standard for surface impoundments used to manage byproduct material. Unless exempted under paragraph 5A(3) of this criterion, surface impoundments (except for an existing portion) shall have a liner that is designed, constructed, and installed to prevent any migration of wastes out of the impoundment to the adjacent subsurface soil, ground water, or surface water at any time during the active life (including the closure period) of the impoundment. The liner may be constructed of materials that may allow wastes to migrate into the liner (but not into the adjacent subsurface soil, ground water, or surface water) during the active life of the facility, provided that impoundment closure includes removal or decontamination of all waste residues, contaminated containment system components (liners, etc.) contaminated subsoils, and structures and equipment contaminated with waste and leachate. For impoundments that will be closed with the liner material left in place, the liner must be constructed of materials that can prevent wastes from migrating into the liner during the active life of the facility.
(2) The liner required by paragraph 5A(1) above shall be:
(a) Constructed of materials that have appropriate chemical properties and sufficient strength and thickness to prevent failure due to pressure gradients (including static head and external hydrogeologic forces), physical contact with the waste or leachate to which they are exposed, climatic conditions, the stress of installation, and the stress of daily operation;
(b) Placed upon a foundation or base capable of providing support to the liner and resistance to pressure gradients above and below the liner to prevent failure of the liner due to settlement, compression, or uplift; and
(c) Installed to cover all surrounding earth likely to be in contact with the wastes or leachate.
(3) The applicant or licensee will be exempted from the requirements of paragraph 5A(1) of this criterion if the Department finds, based on a demonstration by the applicant or licensee, that alternate design and operating practices, including the closure plan, together with site characteristics will prevent the migration of any hazardous constituents into ground water or surface water at any future time.
In deciding whether to grant an exemption, the Department will consider:
(a) The nature and quantity of the wastes;
(b) The proposed alternate design and operation;
(c) The hydrogeologic setting of the facility, including the attenuative capacity and thickness of the liners and soils present between the impoundment and ground water or surface water; and
(d) All other factors which would influence the quality and mobility of the leachate produced and the potential for it to migrate to ground water or surface water.
(4) A surface impoundment must be designed, constructed, maintained, and operated to prevent overtopping resulting from normal or abnormal operations, overfilling, wind and wave actions, rainfall, or run-on; from malfunctions of level controllers, alarms, and other equipment; and from human error.
(5) When dikes are used to form the surface impoundment, the dikes must be designed, constructed, and maintained with sufficient structural integrity to prevent massive failure of the dikes. In ensuring structural integrity, it must not be presumed that the liner system will function without leakage during the active life of the impoundment.
Criterion 5B.
(1) Uranium and thorium byproduct material shall be managed to conform to the following secondary ground-water protection standard: hazardous constituents entering the ground water from a licensed site must not exceed the specified concentration limits in the uppermost aquifer beyond the point of compliance during the compliance period. Hazardous constituents are those constituents identified by the Department pursuant to paragraph 5B(2) of this criterion. Specified concentration limits are those limits established by the Department as indicated in paragraph 5B(5) of this criterion. The Department will also establish the point of compliance and compliance period on a site-specific basis through license conditions and orders. The objective in selecting the point of compliance is to provide the earliest practicable warning that the impoundment is releasing hazardous constituents to the ground water. The point of compliance must be selected to provide prompt indication of ground-water contamination on the hydraulically downgradient edge of the disposal area. The Department shall identify hazardous constituents, establish concentration limits, set the compliance period, and may adjust the point of compliance if needed to accord with developed data and site information as to the flow of ground water or contaminants, when the detection monitoring established under Criterion 7 indicates leakage of hazardous constituents from the disposal area.
(2) A constituent becomes a hazardous constituent subject to paragraph 5B(5) only when the constituent meets all three of the following tests:
(a) The constituent is reasonably expected to be in or derived from the uranium and thorium byproduct material in the disposal area;
(b) The constituent has been detected in the ground water in the uppermost aquifer; and
(c) The constituent is listed in Criterion 10 of this appendix.
(3) Even when constituents meet all three tests in paragraph 5B(2) of this criterion, the Department may exclude a detected constituent from the set of hazardous constituents on a site-specific basis if it finds that the constituent is not capable of posing a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment. In deciding whether to exclude constituents, the Department will consider the following:
(a) Potential adverse effects on ground-water quality, considering
(i) The physical and chemical characteristics of the waste in the licensed site, including its potential for migration;
(ii) The hydrogeological characteristics of the facility and surrounding land;
(iii) The quantity of ground water and the direction of ground water flow;
(iv) The proximity and withdrawal rates of ground-water users;
(v) The current and future uses of ground water in the area;
(vi) The existing quality of ground water, including other sources of contamination and their cumulative impact on the ground water quality;
(vii) The potential for health risks caused by human exposure to waste constituents;
(viii) The potential damage to wildlife, crops, vegetation, and physical structures caused by exposure to waste constituents;
(ix) The persistence and permanence of the potential adverse effects.
(b) Potential adverse effects on hydraulically-connected surface water quality, considering
(i) The volume and physical and chemical characteristics of the waste in the licensed site;
(ii) The hydrogeological characteristics of the facility and surrounding land;
(iii) The quantity and quality of ground water and the direction of ground water flow;
(iv) The patterns of rainfall in the region;
(v) The proximity of the licensed site to surface waters;
(vi) The current and future uses of surface waters in the area and any water quality standards established for those surface waters;
(vii) The existing quality of surface water, including other sources of contamination and the cumulative impact on surface water quality;
(viii) The potential for health risks caused by human exposure to waste constituents;
(ix) The potential damage to wildlife, crops, vegetation, and physical structures caused by exposure to waste constituents; and
(x) The persistence and permanence of the potential adverse effects.
(4) In making any determinations under paragraphs 5B(3) and 5B(6) of this criterion about the use of ground water in the area around the facility, the Department will consider any identification of underground sources of drinking water and exempted aquifers made by the Colorado Water Quality Control Commission, as in 5 CCR 1002-8, or other agency having jurisdiction.
(5) At the point of compliance, the concentration of a hazardous constituent must not exceed:
(a) The Department-approved background concentration of that constituent in the ground water;
(b) The respective value given in the table in paragraph 5C if the constituent is listed in the table and if the background level of the constituent is below the value listed; or
(c) An alternate concentration limit established by the Department.
(6) Conceptually, background concentrations pose no incremental hazards and the drinking water limits in Criterion 5C state acceptable hazards but these two options may not be practically achievable at a specific site. Alternate concentration limits that present no significant hazard may be proposed by licensees for Department consideration. Licensees must provide the basis for any proposed limits including consideration of practicable corrective actions, that limits are as low as reasonably achievable, and information on the factors the Department must consider. The Department will establish a site specific alternate concentration limit for a hazardous constituent as provided in paragraph 5B(5) of this criterion if it finds that the proposed limit is as low as reasonably achievable after considering practicable corrective actions, and that the constituent will not pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment as long as the alternate concentration limit is not exceeded. In making the present and potential hazard finding, the Department will consider the following factors:
(a) Potential adverse effects on ground water quality, considering:
(i) The physical and chemical characteristics of the waste in the licensed site including its potential for migration;
(ii) The hydrogeological characteristics of the facility and surrounding land;
(iii) The quantity of ground water and the direction of ground water flow;
(iv) The proximity and withdrawal rates of ground water users;
(v) The current and future uses of ground water in the area;
(vi) The existing quality of ground water, including other sources of contamination and their cumulative impact on the ground water quality;
(vii) The potential for health risks caused by human exposure to waste constituents;
(viii) The potential damage to wildlife, crops, vegetation, and physical structures caused by exposure to waste constituents;
(ix) The persistence and permanence of the potential adverse effects.
(b) Potential adverse effects on hydraulically-connected surface water quality, considering:
(i) The volume and physical and chemical characteristics of the waste in the licensed site;
(ii) The hydrogeological characteristics of the facility and surrounding land;
(iii) The quantity and quality of ground water, and the direction of ground water flow;
(iv) The patterns of rainfall in the region;
(v) The proximity of the licensed site to surface waters;
(vi) The current and future uses of surface waters in the area and any water quality standards established for those surface waters;
(vii) The existing quality of surface water including other sources of contamination and the cumulative impact on surface water quality;
(viii) The potential for health risks caused by human exposure to waste constituents;
(ix) The potential damage to wildlife, crops, vegetations, and physical structures caused by exposure to waste constituents; and
(x) The persistence and permanence of the potential adverse effects.
Criterion 5C.
Maximum Values for Ground Water Protection
Constituent or property | Maximum Concentration (Milligrams per liter): |
Arsenic | 0.05 |
Barium | 1.0 |
Cadmium | 0.01 |
Chromium | 0.05 |
Lead | 0.05 |
Mercury | 0.002 |
Selenium | 0.01 |
Silver | 0.05 |
Endrin (1,2,3,4,10, 10-hexachloro-1,7-expoxy-1,4,4a,5,6,7,8, 9a-octahydro-1, 4-endo, endo-5, 8-dimethano naphthalene) | 0.0002 |
Lindane (1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-cyclohexane, gamma isomer) | 0.004 |
Methoxychlor (1,1,1-Trichloro-2, 2-bis, p-methoxyphenylethane) | 0.1 |
Toxaphene (C 10 H 10 Cl 6 , Technical chlorinated camphene, 67-69 percent chlorine) | 0.005 |
2,4-D (2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid) | 0.1 |
2,4,5-TP Silvex (2,4,5-Trichloro-phenoxypropionic acid) | 0.01 |
. | Becquerels per liter | PicoCuries per liter |
Combined radium-226 and radium-228 | 0.185 | 5 |
Gross alpha-particle activity (excluding radon and uranium when producing uranium byproduct material or radon and thorium when producing thorium byproduct material) | 0.555 | 15 |
Criterion 5D. If the ground water protection standards established under paragraph 5B(1) of this criterion are exceeded at a licensed site, a corrective action program must be put into operation as soon as is practicable, and in no event later than eighteen (18) months after the Department finds that the standards have been exceeded. The licensee shall submit the proposed corrective action program and supporting rationale for Department approval prior to putting the program into operation, unless otherwise directed by the Department. The objective of the program is to return hazardous constituent concentration levels in ground water to the concentration limits set as standards. The licensee's proposed program shall address removing the hazardous constituents that have entered the ground water at the point of compliance or treating then in place. The program shall also address removing or treating in place any hazardous constituents that exceed concentration limits in ground water between the point of compliance and the down gradient facility property boundary. The licensee shall continue corrective action measures to the extent necessary to achieve and maintain compliance with the ground water protection standard. The Department will determine when the licensee may terminate corrective action measures based on data from the ground water monitoring program and other information that provide reasonable assurance that the ground water protection standard will not be exceeded.
Criterion 5E. In developing and conducting ground water protection programs, applicants and licensees shall also consider the following:
(1) Installation of bottom liners (Where synthetic liners are used, a leakage detection system must be installed immediately below the liner to ensure major failures are detected if they occur. This is in addition to the ground water monitoring program conducted as provided in 18.3.3. Where clay liners are proposed or relatively thin, in situ clay soils are to be relied upon for seepage control, tests must be conducted with representative tailings solutions and clay materials to confirm that no significant deterioration of permeability or stability properties will occur with continuous exposure of clay to tailings solutions. Tests must be run for a sufficient period of time to reveal any effects if they are going to occur (in some cases deterioration has been observed to occur rather rapidly after about nine months of exposure)).
(2) Mill process designs which provide the maximum practicable recycle of solutions and conservation of water to reduce the net input of liquid to the tailings impoundment.
(3) Dewatering of tailings by process devices and/or in situ drainage systems (At new sites, tailings must be dewatered by a drainage system installed at the bottom of the impoundment to lower the phreatic surface and reduce the driving head of seepage, unless tests show tailings are not amenable to such a system. Where in situ dewatering is to be conducted, the impoundment bottom must be graded to assure that the drains are at a low point. The drains must be protected by suitable filter materials to assure that drains remain free running. The drainage system must also be adequately sized to assure good drainage).
(4) Neutralization to promote immobilization of hazardous constituents.
Criterion 5F. Where ground water impacts are occurring at an existing site due to seepage, action must be taken to alleviate conditions that lead to excessive seepage impacts and restore ground water quality. The specific seepage control and ground water protection method, or combination of methods, to be used must be worked out on a site-specific basis. Technical specifications must be prepared to control installation of seepage control systems. A quality assurance, testing, and inspection program, which includes supervision by a qualified engineer or scientist, must be established to assure the specifications are met.
Criterion 5G. In support of a tailings disposal system proposal, the applicant/operator shall supply information concerning the following:
(1) The chemical and radioactive characteristics of the waste solutions.
(2) The characteristics of the underlying soil and geologic formations particularly as they will control transport of contaminants and solutions. This includes detailed information concerning extent, thickness, uniformity, shape, and orientation of underlying strata. Hydraulic gradients and conductivities of the various formations must be determined. This information must be gathered from borings and field survey methods taken within the proposed impoundment area and in surrounding areas where contaminants might migrate to ground water. The information gathered on boreholes must include both geological and geophysical logs in sufficient number and degree of sophistication to allow determining significant discontinuities, fractures, and channeled deposits of high hydraulic conductivity. If field survey methods are used, they should be in addition to and calibrated with borehole logging. Hydrologic parameters such as permeability may not be determined on the basis of laboratory analysis of samples alone; a sufficient amount of field testing (e.g., pump tests) must be conducted to assure actual field properties are adequately understood. Testing must be conducted to allow estimating chemi-sorption attenuation properties of underlying soil and rock.
(3) Location, extent, quality, capacity and current uses of any ground water at and near the site.
Criterion 5H. Steps must be taken during stockpiling of ore to minimize penetration of radionuclides into underlying soils; suitable methods include lining and/or compaction of ore storage areas.
Criterion 6.
(1) In disposing of waste byproduct material, licensees shall place an earthen cover (or approved alternative) over tailings or wastes at the end of milling operations and shall close the waste disposal area in accordance with a design1 which provides reasonable assurance of control of radiological hazards to (i) be effective for 1,000 years, to the extent reasonably achievable, and, in any case, for at least 200 years, and (ii) limit releases of radon-222 from uranium byproduct materials, and radon-220 from thorium byproduct materials, to the atmosphere so as not to exceed an average2 release rate of 0.74 Becquerel per square meter per second (Bq/m2 s), or 20 picocuries per square meter per second (pCi/m2 s), to the extent practicable throughout the effective design life determined pursuant to (1)(i) of this criterion. In computing required tailings cover thicknesses, moisture in soils in excess of amounts found normally in similar soils in similar circumstances may not be considered. Direct gamma exposure from the tailings or wastes should be reduced to background levels. The effects of any thin synthetic layer may not be taken into account in determining the calculated radon exhalation level. If non-soil materials are proposed as cover materials, it must be demonstrated that these materials will not crack or degrade by differential settlement, weathering, or other mechanism, over long-term intervals.
1 In the case of thorium byproduct materials, the standard applies only to design. Monitoring for radon emissions from thorium byproduct materials after installation of an appropriately designed cover is not required.
2 This average applies to the entire surface of each disposal area over a period of a least one year, but a period short compared to 100 years. Radon will come from both byproduct materials and from covering materials. Radon emissions from covering materials should be estimated as part of developing a closure plan for each site. The standard, however, applies only to the emissions from byproduct materials to the atmosphere.
(2) As soon as reasonably achievable after emplacement of the final cover to limit releases of radon-222 from uranium byproduct material and prior to placement of erosion protection barriers or other features necessary for long-term control of the tailings, the licensee shall verify through appropriate testing and analysis that the design and construction of the final radon barrier is effective in limiting releases of radon-222 to a level not exceeding 0.74 Bq/m2 s (20 pCi/m2 s) averaged over the entire pile or impoundment using the procedures described in 40 CFR Part 61 , Appendix B, Method 115, or another method of verification approved by the Department as being at least as effective in demonstrating the effectiveness of the final radon barrier.
(3) When phased emplacement of the final radon barrier is included in the applicable reclamation plan, the verification of radon-222 release rates required in paragraph (2) of this Criterion must be conducted for each portion of the pile or impoundment as the final radon barrier for that portion is emplaced.
(4) Within ninety days of the completion of all testing and analysis relevant to the required verification in paragraphs (2) and (3) of this Criterion, the uranium mill licensee shall report to the Department the results detailing the actions taken to verify that levels of release of radon-222 do not exceed 0.74 Bq/m2 s (20 pCi/m2 s) when averaged over the entire pile or impoundment. The licensee shall maintain records until termination of the license documenting the source of input parameters including the results of all measurements on which they are based, the calculations and/or analytical methods used to derive values for input parameters, and the procedure used to determine compliance. These records shall be kept in a form suitable for transfer to the custodial agency at the time of transfer of the site to the U.S. Department of Energy or State for long-term care if requested.
(5) Near surface cover materials, i.e., within the top three meters (10 feet), may not include waste or rock that contains elevated levels of radium; soils used for near surface cover must be essentially the same, as far as radioactivity is concerned, as that of surrounding surface soils. This is to ensure that surface radon exhalation is not significantly above background because of the cover material itself.
(6) The design requirements in this Criterion for longevity and control of radon releases apply to any portion of a licensed and/or disposal site unless such portion contains a concentration of radium in land, averaged over areas of 100 square meters, which as a result of byproduct material, does not exceed the background level by more than: (i) 0.18 Becquerels (5 picocuries) per gram of radium-226, or, in the case of thorium byproduct material, radium-228, averaged over the first 15 centimeters (cm) below the surface, and (ii)0.56 Becquerels (15 pCi) of radium-226, or, in the case of thorium byproduct material, radium-228, averaged over 15-cm thick layers more than 15 cm below the surface.
Byproduct material containing concentrations of radionuclides other than radium in soil, and surface activity on remaining structures, must not result in a total effective dose equivalent (TEDE) exceeding the dose from cleanup of radium contaminated soil to the above standard (benchmark dose), and must be at levels which are as low is reasonably achievable. If more than one residual radionuclide is present in the same 100 square-meter area, the sum of the ratios for each radionuclide of concentration present to the concentration limit will not exceed "1" (unity). A calculation of the potential peak annual TEDE within 1000 years to the average member of the critical group that would result from applying the radium standard (not including radon) on the site must be submitted for approval. The use of decommissioning plans with benchmark doses which exceed 1 millisievert per year (100 mrem/year), before application of ALARA, requires the approval of the Department. This requirement for dose criteria does not apply to sites that have decommissioning plans for soil and structures approved before the effective date of this Criterion 6(6).
(7) The licensee shall also address the nonradiological hazards associated with the wastes in planning and implementing closure. The licensee shall ensure that disposal areas are closed in a manner that minimizes the need for further maintenance. To the extent necessary to prevent threats to human health and the environment, the licensee shall control, minimize, or eliminate post-closure escape of nonradiological hazardous constituents, leachate, contaminated rainwater, or waste decomposition products to the ground or surface waters or to the atmosphere.
Criterion 6A.
(1) For impoundments containing uranium byproduct materials, the final radon barrier must be completed as expeditiously as practicable considering technological feasibility after the pile or impoundment ceases operation in accordance with a written, Department-approved reclamation plan. (The term as expeditiously as practicable considering technological feasibility as specifically defined in section 18.2 includes factors beyond the control of the licensee). Deadlines for completion of the final radon barrier and, if applicable, the following interim milestones must be established as a condition of the individual license: windblown tailings retrieval and placement on the pile and interim stabilization including dewatering or the removal of freestanding liquids and recontouring. The placement of erosion protection barriers or other feature necessary for long-term control of the tailings must also be completed in a timely manner in accordance with a written, Department-approved reclamation plan.
(2) The Department may approve a licensee's request to extend the time for performance of milestones related to emplacement of the final radon barrier if, after providing an opportunity for public participation, the Department finds that the licensee has adequately demonstrated in the manner required in paragraph (2) of Criterion 6 that releases of radon-222 do not exceed an average of 0.74 Becquerel/m2 s (20 pCi/m2 s). If the delay is approved on the basis that the radon releases do not exceed 0.74 Becquerel/m2 s (20 pCi/m2 s), a verification of radon levels, as required by paragraph (2) of Criterion 6, must be made annually during the period of delay. In addition, once the Department has established the date in the reclamation plan for the milestone for completion of the final radon barrier, the Department may extend that date based on cost if after providing an opportunity for public participation, the Department finds that the licensee is making good faith efforts to emplace the final radon barrier, the delay is consistent with the definition of available technology, and the radon releases caused by the delay will not result in a significant incremental risk to the public health.
(3) The Department may authorize by license amendment, upon licensee request, a portion of the impoundment to accept uranium byproduct material or such materials that are similar in physical, chemical, and radiological characteristics to the uranium mill tailings and associated wastes already in the pile or impoundment from other sources, during the closure process. No such authorization will be made if it results in a delay or impediment to emplacement of the final radon barrier over the remainder of the impoundment in a manner that will achieve levels of radon-222 releases not exceeding 0.74 Becquerel/m2 s (20 pCi/m2 s) averaged over the entire impoundment. The verification required in paragraph (2) of Criterion 6 may be completed with a portion of the impoundment being used for further disposal if the Department makes a final finding that the impoundment will continue to achieve a level of radon-222 release not exceeding 0.74 Becquerel/m2 s (20 pCi/m2 s) averaged over the entire impoundment. In this case, after the final radon barrier is complete except for the continuing disposal area, (a) only byproduct material will be authorized for disposal, (b) the disposal will be limited to the specified existing disposal area, and (c) this authorization will only be made after providing opportunity for public participation. Reclamation of the disposal area, as appropriate, must be completed in a timely manner after disposal operations cease in accordance with paragraph (1) of Criterion 6; however, these actions are not required to be complete as part of meeting the deadline for final radon barrier construction.
Criterion 7.
The licensee shall establish a detection monitoring program needed for the Department to set the site-specific ground water protection standards in paragraph 5B(1) of this appendix. For all monitoring under this paragraph, the licensee or applicant will propose for Department approval as license conditions which constituents are to be monitored on a site-specific basis. A detection monitoring program has two purposes. The initial purpose of the program is to detect leakage of hazardous constituents from the disposal area so that the need to set ground water protection standards is monitored. If leakage is detected, the second purpose of the program is to generate data and information needed for the Department to establish the standards under Criterion 5B. The data and information must provide a sufficient basis to identify those hazardous constituents which require concentration limit standards and to enable the Department to set the limits for those constituents and the compliance period. They may also need to provide the basis for adjustments to the point of compliance. The detection monitoring programs must be in place when specified by the Department in orders or license conditions. Once ground water protection standards have been established pursuant to paragraph 5B(1), the licensee shall establish and implement a compliance monitoring program. The purpose of the compliance monitoring program is to determine that the hazardous constituent concentrations in ground water continue to comply with the standards set by the Department. In conjunction with a corrective action program, the licensee shall establish and implement a corrective action monitoring program. The purpose of the corrective action monitoring program is to demonstrate the effectiveness of the corrective actions. Any monitoring program required by this paragraph may be based on existing monitoring programs to the extent the existing programs can meet the stated objective for the program.
Criterion 8.
Milling operations must be conducted so that all airborne effluent releases are reduced to levels as low as is reasonably achievable. The primary means of accomplishing this must be by means of emission controls. Institutional controls, such as extending the site boundary and exclusion area, may be employed to ensure that offsite exposure limits are met, but only after all practicable measures have been taken to control emissions at the source. Notwithstanding the existence of individual dose standards, strict control of emissions is necessary to assure that population exposures are reduced to the maximum extent reasonably achievable and to avoid site contamination. The greatest potential sources of offsite radiation exposure (aside from radon exposure) are dusting from dry surfaces of the tailings disposal area not covered by tailings solution and emissions from yellowcake drying and packaging operations. During operations and prior to closure, radiation doses from radon emissions from surface impoundments of uranium or thorium byproduct materials must be kept as low as is reasonably achievable.
Checks must be made and logged hourly for all parameters (e.g., differential pressures and scrubber water flow rates) that determine the efficiency of yellowcake stack emission control equipment operation. The licensee shall retain each log as a record for three years after the last entry in the log is made. It must be determined whether or not conditions are within a range prescribed to ensure that the equipment is operating consistently near peak efficiency; corrective action must be taken when performance is outside of prescribed ranges. Effluent control devices must be operative at all times during drying and packaging operations and whenever air is exhausting from the yellowcake stack. Drying and packaging operations must terminate when controls are inoperative. When checks indicate the equipment is not operating within the range prescribed for peak efficiency, actions must be taken to restore parameters to the prescribed range. When this cannot be done without shutdown and repairs, drying and packaging operations must cease as soon as practicable. Operations may not be restarted after cessation due to off-normal performance until needed corrective actions have been identified and implemented. All these cessations, corrective actions, and restarts must be reported to the Department as indicated in Criterion 8A, in writing, within ten days of the subsequent restart.
To control dusting from tailings, that portion not covered by standing liquids must be wetted or chemically stabilized to prevent or minimize blowing and dusting to the maximum extent reasonably achievable. This requirement may be relaxed if tailings are effectively sheltered from wind, such as may be the case where they are disposed of below grade and the tailings surface is not exposed to wind. Consideration must be given in planning tailings disposal programs to methods which would allow phased covering and reclamation of tailings impoundments because this will help in controlling particulate and radon emissions during operation. To control dusting from diffuse sources, such as tailings and ore pads where automatic controls do not apply, operators shall develop written operating procedures specifying the methods of control which will be utilized.
Milling operations producing or involving uranium and thorium byproduct materials must be conducted in such a manner as to provide reasonable assurance that the annual dose equivalent does not exceed 0.25 millisievert (25 millirem) to the whole body, 0.75 millisievert (75 millirem) to the thyroid, and 0.25 millisievert (25 millirem) to any other organ of any member of the public as a result of exposures to the planned discharge of radioactive material, radon and its progeny excepted, to the general environment.
Uranium and thorium byproduct materials must be managed so as to conform to the applicable provisions of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Part 440, "Ore Mining and Dressing Point Source Category: Effluent Limitations Guidelines and New Source Performance Standards, Subpart C, Uranium, Radium, and Vanadium Ores Subcategory", as codified on January 1, 1983.
Criterion 8A. Inspections of tailings or waste retention systems must be conducted daily during operations, or at an alternate frequency approved by the Department for other conditions. Such inspections shall be conducted by, or under the supervision of, a qualified engineer or scientist, and documented. The licensee shall retain the documentation for each inspection as a record for three years after the documentation is made. The Department must be immediately notified of any failure in a tailings or waste retention system that results in a release of tailings or waste into unrestricted areas, or any unusual conditions (conditions not contemplated in the design of the retention system) that if not corrected could indicate the potential or lead to failure of the system and result in a release of tailings or waste into unrestricted areas.
Criterion 9.
Criterion 9A. These criteria relating to ownership of tailings and their disposal sites became effective on November 8, 1981, and apply to all licenses terminated, issued, or renewed after that date.
Criterion 9B. Any uranium or thorium milling license or tailings license must contain such terms and conditions as the NRC and Department determine necessary to assure that prior to termination of the license, the licensee will comply with ownership requirements of this criterion for sites used for tailings disposal.
Criterion 9C. Title to the byproduct material licensed under this Part 18 and land, including any interests therein (other than land owned by the United States or by the State), which is used for the disposal of any such byproduct material, or is essential to ensure the long-term stability of such disposal site, must be transferred to the United States or the State in which such land is located, at the option of such State. In view of the fact that physical isolation must be the primary means of long-term control, and Government land ownership is a desirable supplementary measure, ownership of certain severable subsurface interests (for example, mineral rights) may be determined to be unnecessary to protect the public health and safety and the environment. In any case, however, the applicant/operator must demonstrate a serious effort to obtain such subsurface rights, and must in the event that certain rights cannot be obtained, provide notification in local public land records of the fact that the land is being used for the disposal of radioactive material and is subject to an NRC general or specific license prohibiting the disruption and disturbance of the tailings. In some rare cases, such as may occur with deep burial where no ongoing site surveillance will be required, surface land ownership transfer requirements may be waived with the approval of the NRC. For licenses issued before November 8, 1981, the NRC may take into account the status of the ownership of such land, and interests therein, and the ability of a licensee to transfer title and custody thereof to the United States or the State.
Criterion 9D. If the NRC subsequent to title transfer determines that use of the surface or subsurface estates, or both, of the land transferred to the United States or to a State will not endanger the public health, safety, welfare, or environment, the NRC shall permit the use of the surface or subsurface estates, or both, of such land in a manner consistent with the provisions provided in these criteria. If the NRC permits such use of such land, it will provide the person who transferred such land with the right of first refusal with respect to such use of such land.
Criterion 9E. Material and land transferred to the United States or the State in accordance with this Criterion 9 must be transferred to the United States or the State without cost other than administrative or legal costs incurred in carrying out such transfer.
Criterion 9F. The provisions of this part respecting transfer of title and custody to land and tailings and wastes do not apply in the case of lands held in trust by the United States for any Indian tribe or lands owned by such Indian tribe subject to a restriction against alienation imposed by the United States. In the case of such lands which are used for the disposal of uranium or thorium byproduct material, as defined in this Part, the licensee shall enter into arrangements with the NRC as may be appropriate to assure the long-term surveillance of such lands by the United States.
Criterion 10.
Secondary ground-water protection standards required by Criterion 5 of this Appendix are concentration limits for individual hazardous constituents. The following list of constituents identifies the constituents for which standards must be set and complied with if the specific constituent is reasonably expected to be in or derived from the radioactive material and has been detected in ground water. For purposes of this Appendix, the property of gross alpha activity will be treated as if it is a hazardous constituent. Thus, when setting standards under paragraph 5B(5) of Criterion 5, the Department will also set a limit for gross alpha activity. The Department does not consider the following list imposed by 40 CFR Part 192 to be exhaustive and may determine other constituents to be hazardous on a case-by-case basis, independent of those specified by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency in Part 192.
PART 18 - CRITERION 10 HAZARDOUS CONSTITUENTS
- Acetonitrile (Ethanenitrile)
- Acetophenone (Ethanone, 1-phenyl)
- 3-(alpha-Acetonylbenzyl)-4-hydroxycoumarin and salts (Warfarin)
- 2-Acetylaminofluorene (Acetamide, N-(9H- fluoren-2-yl)-)
- Acetyl chloride (Ethanoyl chloride)
- 1-Acetyl-2-thiourea (Acetamide, N- (aminothioxomethyl)-)
- Acrolein (2-Propenal)
- Acrylamide (2-Propenamide)
- Acrylonitrile (2-Propenenitrile)
- Aflatoxins
- Aldrin (1,2,3,4,10,10-Hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-endo,exo-1,4:5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene)
- Allyl alcohol (2-Propen-1-ol)
- Aluminum phosphide
- 4-Aminobiphenyl ([1,1-Biphenyl])-4-amine)
- 6-Amino-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8-(hydroxymethyl)-8a-methoxy-5-methyl-carbamate azirino(2,3:3,4)pyrrolo(1,2-a]indole-4,7-dione,(ester) (Mitomycin C) (Azirino[2,3:3,4]pyrrolo(1,2-a)indole-4,7-dione,6-amino-8-[((amino-cabonyl)oxy)methyl)-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a methoxy-5-methyl-)
- 5-(Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol (3(2H)-Isoxazolone, 5-(aminomethyl)-)4-Aminopyridine (4-Pyridinamine)
- Amitrole (1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine)
- Aniline (Benzenamine)
- Antimony and compounds, N.O.S.3
- Aramite (Sulfurous acid,2-chloroethyl-,2-(4-(1,1-dimethylethyl)phenoxy)-1-methylethyl ester)
- Arsenic and compounds, N.O.S.3
- Arsenic acid (Orthoarsenic acid)
- Arsenic pentoxide (Arsenic (V) oxide)
- Arsenic trioxide (Arsenic (III) oxide)
- Auramine (Benzenamine,4,4-carbonimidoylbis (N,N-Dimethyl-,monohydrochloride)
- Azaserine (L-Serine, diazoacetate (ester))
- Barium and compounds, N.O.S.3
- Barium cyanide
- Benz(c)acridine (3.4-Benzacridine)
- Benz(a)anthracene (1,2-Benzanthracene)
- Benzene (Cyclohexatriene)
- Benzenearsonic acid (Arsonic acid, phenyl-)
- Benzene, dichloromethyl-(Benzal chloride)
- Benzenethiol (Thiophenol)
- Benzidine ([1,1-Biphenyl]-4,4 diamine)
- Benzo(b)fluoranthene (2,3-Benzofluoranthene)
- Benzo(j)fluoranthene (7,8-Benzofluoranthene)
- Benzo(a)pyrene (3,4-Benzopyrene)
- p-Benzoquinone (1,4-Cyclohexadienedione)
- Benzotrichloride (Benzene, Trichloromethyl)
- Benzyl chloride (Benzene, (chloromethyl)-)
- Beryllium and compounds, N.O.S.3
- Bis(2-chloroethoxy)methane (Ethane,1,1-(methylenebis(oxy)]bis[2-chloro-])
- Bis(2-chloroethyl) ether (Ethane, 1,1-oxybis (2-chloro-))
- N,N-Bis(2-chloroethyl)-2-naphthylamine (Chlornaphazine)
- Bis(2-Chloroisopropyl) ether (Propane, 2,2-oxybis[2-chloro-])
- Bis(chloromethyl) ether (methane,oxybis[chloro-])
- Bis(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester)
- Bromoacetone (2-Propanone, 1-bromo-)
- Bromomethane (Methyl bromide)
- 4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether (Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy-)
- Brucine (Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxy-)
- 2-Butanone peroxide (Methyl ethyl ketone,peroxide)
- Butyl benzyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, butylphenylmethyl ester)
- 2-sec-Butyl-4,6-dinitrophenol (DNBP) (Phenol,2,4-dinitro-6-(1-methylpropyl)-)
- Cadmium and compounds, N.O.S.3
- Calcium chromate (Chromic acid, calcium salt)
- Calcium cyanide
- Carbon disulfide (Carbon bisulfide)
- Carbon oxyfluoride (Carbonyl fluoride)
- Chloral (Acetaldehyde, trichloro-)
- Chlorambucil (Butanoic acid, 4-(bis(2-chloroethyl)amino)benzene-)
- Chlordane (alpha and gamma isomers)4,7-Methanoindan, 1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octachloro-3,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-) (alpha and gammaisomers)
- Chlorinated benzenes, N.O.S.3
- Chlorinated ethane, N.O.S.3
- Chlorinated fluorocarbons, N.O.S.3
- Chlorinated naphthalene, N.O.S.3
- Chlorinated phenol, N.O.S.3
- Chloroacetaldehyde (Acetaldehyde, chloro-)
- Chloroalkyl ethers N.O.S.3
- p-Chloroaniline (Benzenamine, 4-chloro-)
- Chlorobenzene (Benzene, chloro-)
- Chlorobenzilate (Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-alpha-(4-chlorophenyl)-alpha-hydroxy-,ethyl ester)
- p-Chloro-m-cresol (Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl)
- 1-Chloro-2,3-epoxypropane (Oxirane, 2-(chloromethyl)-)
- 2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether (Ethene, (2-chloroethoxy)-)
- Chloroform (Methane, trichloro-)
- Chloromethane (Methyl chloride)
- Chloromethyl methyl ether (Methane,chloromethoxy-)
- 2-Chloronaphthalene (Naphthalene,betachloro-)
- 2-Chlorophenol (Phenol, o-chloro-)
- 1-(o-Chlorophenyl) thiourea (Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)-)
- 3-Chloropropionitrile (Propanenitrile, 3-chloro-)
- Chromium and compounds, N.O.S.3
- Chrysene (1,2-Benzphenanthrene)
- Citrus red No. 2 (2-Naphthol, 1-((2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)azo)-)
- Coal tars
- Copper cyanide
- Creosote (Creosote, wood)
- Cresols (Cresylic acid) (Phenol, methyl-)
- Crotonaldehyde (2-Butenal)
- Cyanides (soluble salts and complexes),N.O.S.3
- Cyanogen (Ethanedinitrile)
- Cyanogen bromide (Bromine cyanide)
- Cyanogen chloride (Chlorine cyanide)
- Cycasin (beta-D-Glucopyranoside, (methyl-ONN-azoxy)methyl-)
- 2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol (phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro-)
- Cyclophosphamide (2H-1,3,2-Oxazaphosphorine (bis(2-chloroethyl)amino)-tetrahydro-,2-oxide)
- Daunomycin (5,12-Naphthacenedione, (8S-cis)-8-acetyl-10-((3-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy)-alpha-L-lyxo-hexopyranosyl)oxy)7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy-)
- DDD (Dichlorodiphenyldichloroethane)(Ethane, 1,1-dichloro-2,2-bis(p-chlorophenyl)-)
- DDE (Ethylene, 1,1-dichloro-2,2-bis(4-chlorophenyl)-)
- DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) (Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro-2,2-bis (p-chlorophenyl)-)
- Diallate (S-(2,3-dichloroallyl)diisopropylthiocarbamate)
- Dibenz(a,h)acridine(1,2,5,6-Dibenzacridine)
- Dibenz(a,j)acridine(1,2,7,8-Dibenzacridine)
- Dibenz(a,h)anthracene (1,2,5,6-Dibenzanthracene
- 7H-Dibenzo(c,g)carbazole (3,4,5,6-Dibenzcarbazole)
- Dibenzo(a,e)pyrene(1,2,4,5-Dibenzpyrene)
- Dibenzo(a,h)pyrene(1,2,5,6-Dibenzpyrene)
- Dibenzo(a,i)pyrene(1,2,7,8-Dibenzpyrene)
- 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane (Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro-)
- 1,2 Dibromoethane (Ethylene dibromide)
- Dibromomethane (Methylene bromide)
- Di-n-butyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester)
- o-Dichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,2-dichloro-)
- m-Dichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,3-dichloro-)
- p-Dichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,4-dichlor-)
- Dichlorobenzene, N.O.S.3 (Benzene, dichloro-N.O.S.3)
- 3,3-Dichlorobenzidine ([1,1, Biphenyl]-4,4-diamine, 3,3-dichloro-)
- 1,4-Dichloro-2-butene (2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro-)
- Dichlorodifluoromethane (Methane, dichlorodifluoro-)
- 1,1 Dichloroethane (Ethylidene dichloride)
- 1,2 Dichloroethane (Ethylene dichloride)
- trans-1,2-Dichloroethene (1,2-Dichloroethylene)
- Dichloroethylene, N.O.S.3 (Ethene, dichloro-N.O.S.3
- 1,1-Dichloroethylene (Ethene, 1,1-dichloro-)
- Dichloromethane (Methylene chloride)
- 2,4-Dichlorophenol (Phenol, 2,4-dichloro-)
- 2,6-Dichlorophenol (Phenol, 2,6-dichloro-)
- 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D), saltsand esters (Acetic acid, 2,4-dichlorophenoxy-, salts and esters)
- Dichlorophenylarsine (Phenyl dichloroarsine)
- Dichloropropane, N.O.S.3 (Propane, dichloro-N.O.S.3
- 1,2-Dichloropropane (Propylene dichloride)
- Dichloropropanol, N.O.S.3 (Propanol, dichloro-N.O.S.3)
- Dichloropropene, N.O.S.3 (Propene, dichloro-N.O.S.3
- 1,3-Dichloropropene (1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro-)
- Dieldin (1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-6,7-epoxy-1,4,4a,5,6,7,8,8a-octa-hydro-endo,exo-1,4:5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene)
- 1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane (2,2,-Bioxirane)
- Diethylarsine (Arsine, diethyl-)
- N,N-Diethylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl)
- O,O-Diethyl S-methyl ester of phosphorodithioic acid (Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-methyl ester)
- O,O-Diethylphosphoric acid, O-p-nitrophenyl ester (Phosphoric acid, diethyl p-nitrophenyl ester)
- Diethyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester)
- O,O-Diethyl O-2-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate (Phosphorothioic acid, O,0-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester)
- Diethylstilbesterol (4,4-Stilbenediol,alpha,alpha-diethyl,bis(dihydrogen phosphate, (E)-)
- Dihydrosafrole (Benzene, 1,2-methylenedioxy-4-propyl-)
- 3,4-Dihydroxy-alpha-(methylamino)methylbenzyl alcohol (1,2-Benzenediol, 4-(1-hydroxy-2 (methylamino)ethyl))
- Dilsopropylfluorophosphate (DFP) (Phosphorofluoridic acid, bis(1-methylethyl) ester)
- Dimethoate (Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-(2-(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl) ester)
- 3,3,-Dimethoxybenzidine ((1,1,-Biphenyl)-4,4,-diamine, 3-3,-dimethoxy-)
- p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene (Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)-)
- 7,12-Dimethylbenz(a)anthracene(1,2-Benzathracene, 7,12-dimethyl-)
- 3,3-Dimethylbenzidine (1,1-Biphenyl)-4,4,diamine, 3,3-dimethyl-)
- Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride (Carbamoyl chloride, dimethyl)
- 1,1 Dimethylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl-)
- 1,2-Dimethylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl-)
- 3,3-Dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-2-butanone, O-[(methylamino) carbonyl] oxime (Thiofanox)
- alpha,alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine (Ethanamine, 1,1-dimethyl-2-phenyl-)
- 2,4-Dimethylphenol (Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl-)
- Dimethyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester)
- Dimethyl sulfate (Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester)
- Dinitrobenzene, N.O.S.3 (Benzene, dinitro-N.O.S.3)
- 4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol and salts (Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-6-methyl-, and salts)
- 2,4-Dinitrophenol (Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-)
- 2,4-Dinitrotoluene (Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro-)
- 2,6-Dinitrotoluene (Benzene, 1-methyl 2,6-dinitro-)
- Di-n-octyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dioctyl ester)
- 1,4-Dioxane (1,4-Diethylene oxide)
- Diphenylamine (Benzenamine, N-phenyl-)
- 1,2-Diphenylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl-)
- Di-n-propylnitrosamine (N-Nitroso-di-n-propylamine)
- Disulfoton (O,O-diethyl S-(2-(ethylthio)ethyl) phosphorodithioate)
- 2,4-Dithiobiuret (Thiomidodicarbonic diamide)
- Endosulfan (5-Norbomene, 2,3-dimethanol,1,4,5,6,7,7-hexachloro-cyclic sulfite)
- Endrin and metabolites (1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-6,7-epoxy-1,4,4a,5,6,7,8,8a-octahydro-endo, endo-1,4,5,8-dimethanonaphthalene, and metabolites)
- Ethyl carbamate (Urethan) (Carbamic acid, ethyl ester)
- Ethyl cyanide (Propanenitrile)
- Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid, salts, and esters (1,2-Ethanediyl-biscarbamodithioic acid, salts and esters)
- Ethyleneimine (Aziridine)
- Ethylene oxide (Oxirane)
- Ethylenethiourea (2-Imidazolidinethione)
- Ethyl methacrylate (2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester)
- Ethyl methanesulfonate (Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester)
- Fluoranthene (Benzo[j,k]fluorene)
- Fluorine
- 2-Fluoroacetamide (Acetamide, 2-fluoro-)
- Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt (Acetic acid, fluoro-sodium salt)
- Formaldehyde (Methylene oxide)
- Formic acid (Methanoic acid)
- Glycidylaldehyde (1-Propanol-2,3 epoxy)
- Halomethane, N.O.S. 3
- Heptachlor (4,7-Methano-1H-indene.1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-)
- Heptachlor epoxide (alpha, beta, and gamma isomers) (4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-2,3-epoxy-3a,4,7,7-tetrahydro-,alpha, beta, and gamma isomers)
- Hexachlorobenzene (Benzene, hexachloro-)
- Hexachlorobutadiene (1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro-)
- Hexachlorocyclohexane (all isomers) (Lindane and isomers)
- Hexachlorocyclopentadiene (1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro-)
- Hexachloroethane (Ethane, 1,1,1,2,2,2-hexachloro-)
- 1,2,3,4,10,10-Hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-1,4,5,8-endo,endo-dimethanonaphthalene (Hexachlorohexa-hydro-endo,endo-dimethanonaphthalene)
- Hexachlorophene (2,2,-Methylenebis(3,4,6-trichlorophenol)
- Hexachloropropene (1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-hexachloro-)
- Hexaethyl tetraphosphate (Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester)
- Hydrazine (Diamine)
- Hydrocyanic acid (Hydrogen cyanide)
- Hydrofluoric acid (Hydrogen fluoride)
- Hydrogen sulfide (Sulfur hydride)
- Hydroxydimethylarsine oxide (Cacodylic acid)
- Indeno (1,2,3-cd)pyrene(1,10-(1,2-phenylene)pyrene)
- Iodomethane (Methyl iodide)
- Iron dextran (Ferric dextran)
- Isocyanic acid, methyl ester (Methyl isocyanate)
- Isobutyl alcohol (1-Propanol, 2-methyl-)
- Isosafrole (Benzene, 1,2-methylenedioxy-4-allyl-)
- Kepone (decachlorooctahydro-1,3,4-Methano-2H-cyclobuta[cd]pentalen-2-one)
- Lasiocarpine (2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-,7-[(2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy) methyl]2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-1H-pyrrolizin-1-yl-ester)
- Lead and compounds, N.O.S.3
- Lead acetate (Acetic acid, lead salt)
- Lead phosphate (Phosphoric acid, lead salt)
- Lead subacetate (Lead, bis(acetato-O)tetrahydroxytri-)
- Maleic anhydride (2,5-Furandione)
- Maleic hydrazide (1,2-Dihydro-3,6-pyridazinedione)
- Malononitrile (Propanedinitrile)
- Melphalan (Alanine, 3-(p-bis(2-chloroethyl)amino)phenyl-L-)- Mercury fulminate (Fulminic acid, mercury salt)
- Mercury and compounds, N.O.S.3
- Methacrylonitrile (2-Propenenitrile,2-methyl-)
- Methanethiol (Thiomethanol)
- Methapyrilene (Pyridine, 2-[(2-dimethylamino)ethyl)]-2-thenylamino-)
- Metholmyl (Acetimidic acid, N-[(methylcarbamoyl)oxy] thio-,methyl ester)
- Methoxychlor (Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro-2,2'-bis(p-methoxyphenyl)-)
- 2-Methylaziridine (1,2-Propylenimine)
- 3-Methlycholanthrene (Benz[j]aceanthrylene,1,2-dihydro-3-methyl-)
- Methyl chlorcarbonate (Carbonochloridicacid, methyl ester)
- 4,4'-Methylenebis (2-chloroaniline) Benzenamine, 4,4'-methylenebis-(2-chloro-)
- Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) (2-Butanone)
- Methyl hydrazine (Hydrazine methyl-)
- 2-Methyllactonitrile (Propanenitrile 2-hydroxy-2-methyl-)
- Methyl methacrylate (2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester)
- Methyl methanesulfonate Methanesulfonicacid, methyl ester)
- 2-Methyl-2-(methylthio)propionaldehyde-o-(methylcarbonyl) oxime (Propanal,2-methyl-2(methylthio-0-[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxime)
- N-Methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitrosoguanidine (Guanidine, N-nitroso-N-methyl-N'-nitro-)
- Methyl parathion (0,0-dimethyl 0-(40 nitrophenyl) phosphorothioate)
- Methylthiouracil (4-IH-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxo-)
- Molybdenum and compounds, N.O.S.3
- Mustard gas (Sulfide, bis(2-chloroethyl)-)
- Naphthalene
- 1,4-Naphthoquinone (1,4-Naphthalenedione)
- 1-Naphthylamine (alpha-Naphthylamine)
- 2-Naphthylamine (beta-Naphthylamine)
- 1-Naphthyl-2-thiourea (Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl-)
- Nickel and compounds, N.O.S.3
- Nickel carbonyl (Nickel tetracarbonyl)
- Nickel cyanide (Nickel (II) cyanide)
- Nicotine and salts (Pyridine, (S)-3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, and salts)
- Nitric oxide (Nitrogen (II) oxide)
- p-Nitroaniline (Benzenamine, 4-nitro-)
- Nitrobenzine (Benzene, nitro-)
- Nitrogen dioxide (Nitrogen (IV) oxide)
- Nitrogen mustard and hydrochloride salt (Ethanamine, 2-chloro-,N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methyl-, and hydrochloride salt)
- Nitrogen mustard N-Oxide and hydrochloride salt (Ethanamine, 2-chloro,N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methyl-and hydrochloride salt)
- Nitroglycerine (1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate)
- 4-Nitrophenol (Phenol, 4-nitro)
- 4-Nitroquinoline-1-oxide (Quinoline,4-nitro-1-oxide-)
- Nitrosamine, N.O.S.3
- N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine (1-Butanamine,N-butyl-N-nitroso-)
- N-Nitrosodiethanolamine (Ethanol, 2,2'-(nitrosoimino)bis-)
- N-Nitrosodiethylamine (Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-)
- N-Nitrosodimethylamine (Dimethylnitrosamine)
- N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea (Carbamide, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-)
- N-Nitrosomethylethylamine (Ethanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-)
- N-Nitroso-N-methylurea (Carbamide, N-methyl-N-nitroso-)
- N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane (Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester)
- N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine (Ethenamine,N-methyl-N-nitroso-)
- N-Nitrosomorpholine (Morpholine,-N-nitroso-)
- N-Nitrosonomicotine (Nornicotine,-N-nitroso-)
- N-Nitrosopiperidine (Pyridine, hexahydro-,N-nitroso-)
- Nitrosopyrrolidine (Pyrrole, tetrahydro-N-nitroso-)
- N-Nitrososarcosine (Sarcosine,-N-nitroso-)
- 5-Nitro-o-toluidine (Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro-)
- Octamethylpyrophosphoramide (Diphosphoramide, octamethyl-)
- Osmium tetroxide (Osmium(VIII)oxide)
- 7-Oxabicyclo(2,2,1)heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid (Endothal)
- Paraldehyde (1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl-)
- Parathion (Phosphorothioic acid O,O-diethylO-(p-nitrophenyl) ester)
- Pentachlorobenzene (Benzene, pentachloro-)
- Pentachloroethane (Ethane, pentachloro-)
- Pentachloronitrobenzene (PCNB) (Benzene, Pentachloronitro-)
- Pentachlorophenol (Phenol, pentachloro-)
- Phenacetin (Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)-)
- Phenol (Benzene, hydroxy-)
- Phenylenediamine (Benzenediamine)
- Phenylmercury acetate (Mercury acetatophenyl-)
- N-Phenylthiourea (Thiourea, phenyl-)
- Phosgene (Carbonyl chloride)
- Phosphine (Hydrogen phosphide)
- Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[(ethylthio)methyl]ester (Phorate)
- Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-dimethyl O-(p-[(dimethylamino)sulfonyl)phenyl]ester (Famphur)
- Phthalic acid esters, N.O.S.3 (Benzene, 1,2-dicarboxylic acid, esters, N.O.S.3)
- Phthalic anhydride (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid anhydride)
- 2-Picoline (Pyridine, 2-methyl-)
- Polychlorinated biphenyl, N.O.S.3
- Potassium cynanide
- Potassium silver cyanide (Argentate(1-),dicyano-,potassium)
- Pronamide (3,5-Dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl)benzamide)
- 1,3 Propane sultone (1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide)
- n-Propylamine (1-Propanamine)
- Propylthiouracil (Undecamethylenediamine,N,N-bis(2-chlorobenzyl-),dihydrochloride)
- 2-Propyn-1-ol (Propargyl alcohol)
- Pyridine
- Radium-226 and-228
- Reserpine (Yohimban-16-carboxylic acid,11,17-dimethoxy-18-[3,4,5-trimethoxybenzoyl)oxy]-, methyl ester)
- Resorcinol (1,3-Benzenediol)
- Saccharin and salts (1,2-Benzoisothiazolin-3-one, 1,1-dioxide, and salts)
- Safrele (Benzene, 1,2-methylenedioxy-4-allyl-)
- Selenious acid (Selenium dioxide)
- Selenium and compounds, N.O.S.3
- Selenium sulfide (Sulfur selenide)
- Selenourea (Carbamimidoselenoic acid)
- Silver and compounds, N.O.S.3
- Silver cyanide
- Sodium cyanide
- Streptozotocin (D-Glucopyranose, 2-deoxy-2-(3-methyl-3-nitrosoureido)-)
- Strontium sulfide
- Strychnine and salts (Strychnidin-10-one, and salts)
- 1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene (Benzene,1,2,4,5-tetrachloro-)
- 2,3,7,8-Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (TCDD) (Dibenzo-p-dioxin, 2,3,7,8-tetrachloro-)
- Tetrachloroethane, N.O.S.3 (Ethane, tetrachloro-N.O.S.3
- 1,1,1,2-Tetrachlorethane (Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro-)
- 1,1,2,2-Tetrachlorethane (Ethane 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro-)
- Tetrachlorethane (Ethene, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro-)
- Tetrachloromethane (Carbon tetrachloride)
- 2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol (Phenol 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro-)
- Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate (Dithiopyrophosphoric acid, tetraethyl-ester)
- Tetraethyl lead (Plumbane, tetraethyl-)
- Tetraethylpyrophosphate (Pyrophosphoricacide, tetraethyl ester)
- Tetranitromethane (Methane, tetranitro-)
- Thallium and compounds, N.O.S.3
- Thallic oxide (Thallium (III) oxide)
- Thallium (I) acetate (Acetic acid, thallium (I) salt)
- Thallium (I) carbonate (Carbonic acid dithallium (I) salt)
- Thallium (I) chloride
- Thallium (I) nitrate (Nitric acid, thallium (I) salt)
- Thallium selenite
- Thallium (I) sulfate (Sulfuric acid, thallium (I) salt)
- Thioacetamide (Ethanethioamide)
- Thiosemicarbazide (Hydrazinecarbothioamide)
- Thiourea (Carbamide thio-)
- Thiuram (Bis(dimethylthiocarbamoyl) disulfide)
- Thorium and compounds, N.O.S.3 when producing thorium byproduct material
- Toluene (Benzene, methyl-)
- Toluenediamine (Diaminotoluene)
- o-Toluidine hydrochloride (Benzenamine, 2-methyl-,hydrochloride)
- Tolylene diisocyanate (Benzene, 1,3-diisocyanatomethyl-)
- Toxaphene (Camphene, octachloro-)
- Tribromomethane (Bromoform)
- 1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,2,4-trichloro-)
- 1,1,1-Trichloroethane (Methyl chloroform)
- 1,1,2-Trichloroethane (Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro-)
- Trichloroethene (Trichloroethylene)
- Trichloromethanethiol (Methanethiol, trichloro-)
- Trichloromonofluoromethane (Methane, trichlorofluoro-)
- 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol (Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro-)
- 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol (Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro-)
- 2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4,5-T) (Acetic acid, 2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy-)
- 2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxypropionic acid (2,4,5-TP) (Silvex) (Propionoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)-)
- Trichloropropane, N.O.S.3 (Propane, trichloro-, N.O.S.3)
- 1,2,3-Trichloropropane (Propane, 1,2,3-trichloro-)
- O,O,O-Triethyl phosphorothioate (Phosphorothioic acid, O,O,O-triethyl ester)
- sym-Trinitrobenzene (Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro-)
- Tris(1-azridinyl) phosphine sulfide (Phosphine sulfide, tris(1-aziridinyl-)
- Tris(2,3-dibromopropyl) phosphate (1-Propanol, 2,3-dibromo-, phosphate)
- Trypan blue (2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic acid, 3,3,-((3,3,-dimethyl (1,1,-biphenyl)-4,4,diyl)bis(azo))bis(5-amino-4-hydroxy-tetrasodium salt)
- Uracil mustard (Uracil-5-[bis(2-chloroethyl]amino)-)
- Uranium and compounds, N.O.S.3
- Vanadic acid, ammonium salt (ammonium vanadate)
- Vanadium pentoxide (Vanadium (V) oxide)
- Vinyl chloride (Ethene, chloro-)
- Zinc cyanide
- Zinc phosphide
3 The abbreviation N.O.S. (not otherwise specified) signifies those members of the general class not specifically listed by name in this list.
6 CCR 1007-1-18-A