118.01.20 Ark. Code R. 002
Current through Register Vol. 49, No. 10, October, 2024
The following rules of the Arkansas Pollution Control and Ecology Comission, adopted pursuant to the provisions of the Arkansas Hazardous Waste Management Act of 1979 (Act 406 of 1979, as amended, Arkansas Code Annotated (A.C.A.) §§ 8-7-201et seq.), and the Arkansas Resource Reclamation Act of 1979 (Act 1098 of 1979, as amended, Arkansas Code Annotated (A.C.A.) §§ 8-7-301et seq.), shall be known as APC&EC Rule No. 23, (Hazardous Waste Management). It is the purpose of this Rule and it is hereby declared to be the policy of this Commission:
* to protect the public health and safety, the health of living organisms, and the environment from the effects of improper, inadequate, or unsound management of hazardous wastes;
* to establish a program of regulation over the generation, storage, transportation, treatment, and disposal of hazardous waste;
* to assure the safe and adequate management of hazardous wastes within this state;
* to qualify to adopt, administer, and enforce a hazardous waste program pursuant to the Federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, as amended, ( P.L. 94-580);
* to afford the people of the State of Arkansas a voice in the permitting of hazardous waste facilities within their respective counties;
* to establish a statewide program designed to protect society and the environment from the risks and burdens associated with the continued practice of disposing of those forms of hazardous waste which could otherwise be treated;
* to encourage the development and utilization of techniques which result in the recovery, reclamation and conservation of resources of the State, including the reclamation and conservation or safeguarding of abandoned hazardous waste disposal sites;
* to encourage interstate cooperation and interstate agreements which would provide a requisite balance of disposal and treatment facilities among the states and which would reduce the amount of hazardous waste disposed of in the state, irrespective of the origin of such wastes; and
* to promote economic growth with environmental concern by establishing a program to assist industries in finding environmentally sound methods of disposing of hazardous waste.
The rules under this Chapter are promulgated pursuant to the Arkansas Hazardous Waste Management Act, as amended (Act 406 of 1979, as amended, A.C.A. §§ 8-7-201et seq.)
Any of the following acts shall be considered a violation of this Rule and shall be subject to the penalties provided in the Arkansas Hazardous Waste Management Act of 1979 (Act 406 of 1979, as amended):
Title 40 Code of Federal Regulations:
Permit Fees
(Fee based on active portion only.)
(Fee based on active portion only.)
(Fee based on waste feed rate.)
Hazardous Waste Facility Operator Fees
Closure Plan Fees
Monitoring/Inspection Fees
Each TSDF shall submit a money order or cashier's check payable to the Division by January 1 of each calendar year beginning January 1, 1990, and annually thereafter.
Miscellaneous Fees and Costs
Category | Pounds Generated | Annual Fee |
1 | 0 to 29,999 | $ 0.00 |
2 | 30,000 to 99,999 | $ 750.00 |
3 | 100,000 to 199,999 | $ 1,500.00 |
4 | 200,000 to 299,999 | $ 3,000.00 |
5 | 300,000 to 399,999 | $ 5,000.00 |
6 | 400,000 to 499,999 | $ 7,500.00 |
7 | 500,000 and above | $10,000.00 |
As used in Sections 260 through 273 of this rule:
When used in Sections 260 through 279 of this rule, the following terms have the meanings given below:
"Above ground tank" means a device meeting the definition of "tank" in § 260.10 and that is situated in such a way that the entire surface area of the tank is completely above the plane of the adjacent surrounding surface and the entire surface area of the tank (including the tank bottom) is able to be visually inspected.
"Act" means the Arkansas Hazardous Waste Management Act of 1979 (A.C.A. §§ 8-7-201 et
seq.), as amended.
"Active life of a facility" means the period from the initial receipt of hazardous waste at the facility until the Director receives certification of final closure.
"Active Portion" means that portion of a facility where treatment, storage, or disposal operations are being or have been conducted after the effective date of provisions of this rule subjecting such facility to regulation, and which is not a closed portion. (See also "closed portion" and "inactive portion".)
"Acute hazardous waste" means: hazardous wastes that meet the listing criteria in § 261.11(a)(2) and therefore are either listed in § 261.31 of this section with the assigned hazard code of (H) or are listed in § 261.33(e) of this section.
"Administrator" means the Administrator of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, or his designee.
"AES filing compliance date" means: the date that EPA announces in the Federal Register, on or after which exporters of hazardous waste and exporters of cathode ray tubes for recycling are required to file EPA information in the Automated Export System or its successor system, under the International Trade Data System (ITDS) platform.
"Ancillary equipment" means any device including, but not limited to, such devices as piping, fittings, flanges, valves, and pumps, that is used to distribute, meter, or control the flow of hazardous waste from its point of generation to a storage or treatment tank(s), between hazardous waste storage and treatment tanks to a point of disposal onsite, or to a point of shipment for disposal off-site.
"Aquifer" means a geologic formation, group of formations, or part of a formation capable of yielding a significant amount of ground water to wells or springs.
"Authorized representative" means the person responsible for the overall operation of a facility or an operational unit (i.e., part of a facility), e.g., the plant manager, superintendent or person of equivalent responsibility.
"Battery" means a device consisting of one or more electrically connected electrochemical cells which is designed to receive, store, and deliver electric energy. An electrochemical cell is a system consisting of an anode, cathode, and an electrolyte, plus such connections (electrical and mechanical) as may be needed to allow the cell to deliver or receive electrical energy. The term "battery" also includes an intact, unbroken battery from which the electrolyte has been removed.
"Boiler" means an enclosed device using controlled flame combustion and having the following characteristics:
"Carbon dioxide stream" means carbon dioxide that has been captured from an emission source (e.g., power plant), plus incidental associated substances derived from the source materials and the capture process, and any substances added to the stream to enable or improve the injection process.
"Carbon regeneration unit" means any enclosed thermal treatment device used to regenerate spent activated carbon.
"Cathode ray tube" or "CRT" means a vacuum tube, composed primarily of glass, which is the visual or video display component of an electronic device. A used, intact CRT means a CRT whose vacuum has not been released. A used, broken CRT means glass removed from its housing or casing whose vacuum has been released.
"Central accumulation area" means: any on-site hazardous waste accumulation area with hazardous waste accumulating in units subject to either § 262.16 (for small quantity generators) or § 262.17 of this section (for large quantity generators). A central accumulation area at an eligible academic entity that chooses to operate under section 262 subsection K is also subject to § 262.211 when accumulating unwanted material and/or hazardous waste.
"Certification" means a statement of professional opinion based upon knowledge and belief.
"CFR" means the Code of Federal Regulations.
"Closed portion" means that portion of a facility which an owner or operator has closed in accordance with the approved facility closure plan and all applicable closure requirements. (See also "active portion" and "inactive portion".)
"Commercial Hazardous Waste Management Facility" means a hazardous waste management facility which does not meet the definition of a noncommercial hazardous waste facility as defined in this section.
"Commingling" means transfer of different hazardous wastes between DOT-approved containers performed by a transporter where the containers holding such wastes may be opened and mixed with other hazardous wastes. Any commingling that constitutes treatment as defined in this Section cannot occur in the course of transportation.
"Commission" means the Arkansas Pollution Control and Ecology Commission.
"Component" means either the tank or ancillary equipment of a tank system.
"Confined aquifer" means an aquifer bounded above and below by impermeable beds or by beds of distinctly lower permeability than that of the aquifer itself; an aquifer containing confined ground water.
"Consolidation" means the transfer of containers of hazardous waste between transport conveyances by a hazardous waste transporter for the sole purpose of achieving transportation efficiencies where the containers holding such wastes are not opened or the wastes repackaged.
"Contained" means held in a unit (including a land-based unit as defined in this subsection) that meets the following criteria:
"Container" means any portable device in which a material is stored, transported, treated, disposed of, or otherwise handled.
"Containment Building" means a hazardous waste management unit that is used to store or treat hazardous waste under the provisions of Subsection DD of Sections 264 or 265 of this rule.
"Contingency Plan" means a document setting out an organized, planned, and coordinated course of action to be followed in case of a fire, explosion, or release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents which could threaten human health or the environment.
"Corrosion expert" means a person who, by reason of his knowledge of the physical sciences and the principles of engineering and mathematics, acquired by a professional education and related practical experience, is qualified to engage in the practice of corrosion control on buried or submerged metal piping systems and metal tanks. Such a person must be certified as being qualified by the National Association of Corrosion Engineers (NACE) or be a registered professional engineer who has certification or licensing that includes education and experience in corrosion control on buried or submerged metal piping systems and metal tanks.
"CRT collector" means a person who receives used, intact CRTs for recycling, repair, resale, or donation.
"CRT exporter" means any person in the United States who initiates a transaction to send used CRTs outside the United States or its territories for recycling or reuse, or any intermediary in the United States arranging for such export.
"CRT glass manufacturer" means an operation or part of an operation that uses a furnace to manufacture CRT glass.
"CRT processing" means conducting all of the following activities:
"Designated facility" means (a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility which :
"Designated facility" also means a generator site designated on the manifest to receive its waste as a return shipment from a facility that has rejected the waste in accordance with § 264.72(f) or § 265.72(f) of this Rule. If a waste is destined to a facility in an authorized State which has not yet obtained authorization to regulate that particular waste as hazardous, then the designated facility must be a facility allowed by the receiving State to accept such waste.
"Destination facility" means a facility that treats, disposes of, or recycles a particular category of universal waste, except those management activities described in subparagraphs (a) and (c) of sections 273.13 and 273.33. A facility at which a particular category of universal waste is only accumulated, is not a destination facility for purposes of managing that category of universal waste.
"Dike" means an embankment or ridge of either natural or man-made materials used to prevent the movement of liquids, sludges, solids, or other materials.
"Dioxins and furans (D/F)" means tetra, penta, hexa, hepta, and octa-chlorinated dibenzo dioxins and furans.
"Director" means the Director of the Division of Environmental Quality, or his designated representative.
"Discharge or hazardous waste discharge" means the accidental or intentional spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying, or dumping of hazardous waste into or on any land or water.
"Disposal" means the discharge, deposit, injection, dumping, spilling, leaking, or placing of any solid waste or hazardous waste into or on any land or water so that such solid waste or hazardous waste or any constituent thereof may enter the environment or be emitted into the air or discharged into any waters, including ground waters.
"Disposal facility" means a facility or part of a facility at which hazardous waste is intentionally placed into or on any land or water, and at which waste will remain after closure. The term disposal facility does not include a corrective action management unit into which remediation wastes are placed.
"Drip pad" is an engineered structure consisting of a curbed, free-draining base, constructed of non-earthen materials and designed to convey preservative kick-back or drippage from treated wood, precipitation, and surface water run-on to an associated collection system at wood preserving plants.
"Electronic import-export reporting compliance date" means: the date that EPA announces in the Federal Register, on or after which exporters, importers, and receiving facilities are required to submit certain export and import related documents to EPA using EPA's Waste Import Export Tracking System, or its successor system.
"Electronic manifest" (or e-Manifest) means the electronic format of the hazardous waste manifest that is obtained from EPA's national e-Manifest system and transmitted electronically to the system, and that is the legal equivalent of EPA Forms 8700-22 (Manifest) and 8700-22A (Continuation Sheet).
"Electronic Manifest System"(or e-Manifest System) means EPA's national information technology system through which the electronic manifest may be obtained, completed, transmitted, and distributed to users of the electronic manifest and to regulatory agencies.
"Elementary neutralization unit" means a device which:
"EPA hazardous waste number" means the unique number assigned by the EPA to each hazardous waste listed in Section 261, Subsection D, of this rule and to each characteristic identified in Section 261, Subsection C, of this rule.
"EPA identification number" means the number assigned by EPA or the Division of Environmental Quality to each generator, transporter, and treatment, storage, or disposal facility.
"EPA region" means the states and territories found in any one of the following ten regions:
Region I - Maine, Vermont, New Hampshire, Massachusetts, Connecticut, and Rhode Island.
Region II - New York, New Jersey, Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
Region III - Pennsylvania, Delaware, Maryland, West Virginia, Virginia, and the District of Columbia.
Region IV - Kentucky, Tennessee, North Carolina, Mississippi, Alabama, Georgia, South Carolina, and Florida.
Region V - Minnesota, Wisconsin, Illinois, Michigan, Indiana and Ohio.
Region VI - New Mexico, Oklahoma, Arkansas, Louisiana, and Texas.
Region VII - Nebraska, Kansas, Missouri, and Iowa.
Region VIII - Montana, Wyoming, North Dakota, South Dakota, Utah, and Colorado.
Region IX - California, Nevada, Arizona, Hawaii, Guam, American Samoa, Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
Region X - Washington, Oregon, Idaho, and Alaska.
"Equivalent method" means any testing or analytical method approved by the Commission under §§ 260.20 and 260.21.
"Existing hazardous waste management (HWM) facility" or "existing facility" means a facility which was in operation or for which construction commenced on or before March 14, 1979. A facility has commenced construction if:
"Existing portion" means that land surface area of an existing waste management unit, included in the original part A permit application, on which wastes have been placed prior to the issuance of a permit.
"Existing tank system" or "existing component" means a tank system or component that is used for the storage or treatment of hazardous waste and that is in operation, or for which installation has commenced on or prior to July 14, 1986. Installation will be considered to have commenced if the owner or operator has obtained all Federal, State, and local approvals or permits necessary to begin physical construction of the site or installation of the tank system and if either (1) a continuous on-site physical construction or installation program has begun, or (2) the owner or operator has entered into contractual obligations - which cannot be canceled or modified without substantial loss - for physical construction of the site or installation of the tank system to be completed within a reasonable time.
"Explosives or munitions emergency" means a situation involving the suspected or detected presence of unexploded ordnance (UXO), damaged or deteriorated explosives or munitions, an improvised explosive device (IED), other potentially explosive material or device, or other potentially harmful military chemical munitions or device, that creates an actual or potential imminent threat to human health, including safety, or the environment, including property, as determined by an explosives or munitions emergency response specialist. Such situations may require immediate and expeditious action by an explosives or munitions emergency response specialist to control, mitigate, or eliminate the threat.
"Explosives or munitions emergency response" means all immediate response activities by an explosives and munitions emergency response specialist to control, mitigate, or eliminate the actual or potential threat encountered during an explosives or munitions emergency. An explosives or munitions emergency response may include in-place render-safe procedures, treatment or destruction of the explosives or munitions and/or transporting those items to another location to be rendered safe, treated, or destroyed. Any reasonable delay in the completion of an explosives or munitions emergency response caused by a necessary, unforeseen, or uncontrollable circumstance will not terminate the explosives or munitions emergency. Explosives and munitions emergency responses can occur on either public or private lands and are not limited to responses at RCRA facilities.
"Explosives or munitions emergency response specialist" means an individual trained in chemical or conventional munitions or explosives handling, transportation, render-safe procedures, or destruction techniques. Explosives or munitions emergency response specialists include Department of Defense (DOD) emergency explosive ordnance disposal (EOD), technical escort unit (TEU), and DOD-certified civilian or contractor personnel; and other Federal, State, or local government, or civilian personnel similarly trained in explosives or munitions emergency responses.
"Facility" means:
"Federal agency" means any department, agency, or other instrumentality of the Federal Government, any independent agency or establishment of the Federal Government including any Government corporation, and the Government Printing Office.
"Federal, State and local approvals or permits necessary to begin physical construction" means permits and approvals required under Federal, State or local hazardous waste control statutes, regulations or ordinances.
"Final closure" means the closure of all hazardous waste management units at the facility in accordance with all applicable closure requirements so that hazardous waste management activities under Sections 264 and 265 of this rule are no longer conducted at the facility unless subject to the provisions in § 262.34.
"Food-chain crops" means tobacco, crops grown for human consumption, and crops grown for feed for animals whose products are consumed by humans.
"Free liquids" means liquids which readily separate from the solid portion of a waste under ambient temperature and pressure.
"Freeboard" means the vertical distance between the top of a tank or surface impoundment dike, and the surface of the waste contained therein.
"Generation" means the act or process which results in the production of waste materials.
"Generator" means any person, by site, whose act or process produces hazardous waste identified or listed in Section 261 of this rule or whose act first causes a hazardous waste to become subject to regulation.
"Ground water" means water below the land surface in a zone of saturation.
"Hazardous secondary material" means a secondary material (e.g., spent material, byproduct, or sludge) that, when discarded, would be identified as hazardous waste under Section 261 of this rule.
"Hazardous secondary material generator" means any person whose act or process produces hazardous secondary materials at the generating facility. For purposes of this paragraph, "generating facility" means all contiguous property owned, leased, or otherwise controlled by the hazardous secondary material generator. For the purposes of § 261.2(a)(2)(ii) and § 261.4(a)(23), a facility that collects hazardous secondary materials from other persons is not the hazardous secondary material generator.
"Hazardous Waste" means a hazardous waste as defined in § 261.3 of this rule.
"Hazardous waste constituent" means a constituent that caused the EPA Administrator or Commission to list the hazardous waste in Section 261, Subsection D, of this rule, or a constituent listed in Table 1 of § 261.24 of this rule.
"Hazardous waste management" means the systematic control of the generation, collection, distribution, marketing, source separation, storage, transportation, processing, recovery, disposal and treatment of hazardous waste.
"Hazardous waste management unit" is a contiguous area of land on or in which hazardous waste is placed, or the largest area in which there is significant likelihood of mixing hazardous waste constituents in the same area. Examples of hazardous waste management units include a surface impoundment, a waste pile, a land treatment area, a landfill cell, an incinerator, a tank and its associated piping and underlying containment system and a container storage area. A container alone does not constitute a unit; the unit includes containers and the land or pad upon which they are placed.
"In operation" refers to a facility which is treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous waste.
"Inactive portion" means that portion of a facility which is not operated after the effective date of § 261 of this rule. (See also "active portion" and "closed portion".)
"Incinerator" means any enclosed device that:
Incompatible waste" means a hazardous waste which is unsuitable for:
(See appendix V of Sections 264 and 265 of this rule for examples.)
"Individual generation site" means the contiguous site at or on which one or more hazardous wastes are generated. An individual generation site, such as a large manufacturing plant, may have one or more sources of hazardous waste but is considered a single or individual generation site if the site or property is contiguous.
"Industrial furnace" means any of the following enclosed devices that are integral components of manufacturing processes and that use thermal treatment to accomplish recovery of materials or energy:
"Infrared incinerator" means any enclosed device that uses electric powered resistance heaters as a source of radiant heat followed by an afterburner using controlled flame combustion and which is not listed as an industrial furnace.
"Inground tank" means a device meeting the definition of "tank" in § 260.10 whereby a portion of the tank wall is situated to any degree within the ground, thereby preventing visual inspection of that external surface area of the tank that is in the ground.
"Injection well" means a well into which fluids are injected. (See also "underground injection".)
"Inner liner" means a continuous layer of material placed inside a tank or container which protects the construction materials of the tank or container from the contained waste or reagents used to treat the waste.
"Installation inspector" means a person who, by reason of his knowledge of the physical sciences and the principles of engineering, acquired by a professional education and related practical experience, is qualified to supervise the installation of tank systems.
"Intermediate facility" means any facility that stores hazardous secondary materials for more than 10 days, other than a hazardous secondary material generator or reclaimer of such material.
"International shipment" means the transportation of hazardous waste into or out of the jurisdiction of the United States.
"Lamp", also referred to as "universal waste lamp", is defined as the bulb or tube portion of an electric lighting device. A lamp is specifically designed to produce radiant energy, most often in the ultraviolet, visible, and infra-red regions of the electromagnetic spectrum. Examples of common universal waste electric lamps include, but are not limited to, fluorescent, high intensity discharge, neon, mercury vapor, high pressure sodium, and metal halide lamps.
"Land-based unit" means an area where hazardous secondary materials are placed in or on the land before recycling. This definition does not include land-based production units.
"Landfill" means a disposal facility or part of a facility where hazardous waste is placed in or on land and which is not a pile, a land treatment facility, a surface impoundment, an underground injection well, a salt dome formation, a salt bed formation, an underground mine, a cave, or a corrective action management unit.
"Landfill cell" means a discrete volume of a hazardous waste landfill which uses a liner to provide isolation of wastes from adjacent cells or wastes. Examples of landfill cells are trenches and pits.
"Land treatment facility" means a facility or part of a facility at which hazardous waste is applied onto or incorporated into the soil surface; such facilities are disposal facilities if the waste will remain after closure.
"Large quantity generator" means a generator who generates any of the following amounts in a calendar month:
"Leachate" means any liquid, including any suspended components in the liquid, that has percolated through or drained from hazardous waste.
"Leak-detection system" means a system capable of detecting the failure of either the primary or secondary containment structure or the presence of a release of hazardous waste or accumulated liquid in the secondary containment structure. Such a system must employ operational controls (e.g., daily visual inspections for releases into the secondary containment system of aboveground tanks) or consist of an interstitial monitoring device designed to detect continuously and automatically the failure of the primary or secondary containment structure or the presence of a release of hazardous waste into the secondary containment structure.
"Liner" means a continuous layer of natural or man-made materials, beneath or on the sides of a surface impoundment, landfill, or landfill cell, which restricts the downward or lateral escape of hazardous waste, hazardous waste constituents, or leachate.
"Management" or "hazardous waste management" means the systematic control of the collection, source separation, storage, transportation, processing, treatment, recovery, and disposal of hazardous waste.
"Manifest" means the shipping document EPA Form 8700-22 (including, if necessary, EPA Form 8700-22A), or the electronic manifest, originated and signed in accordance with the applicable requirements of sections 262 through 265.
"Manifest tracking number" means: the alphanumeric identification number (i.e., a unique three letter suffix preceded by nine numerical digits), which is pre-printed in Item 4 of the Manifest by a registered source.
"Mercury-containing device" means a device or a part of a device (including thermostats, but excluding batteries and lamps) which contains elemental mercury integral to its function.
"Military munitions" means all ammunition products and components produced or used by or for the U.S. Department of Defense or the U.S. Armed Services for national defense and security, including military munitions under the control of the Department of Defense, the U.S. Coast Guard, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE), and National Guard personnel. The term military munitions includes: confined gaseous, liquid, and solid propellants, explosives, pyrotechnics, chemical and riot control agents, smokes, and incendiaries used by DOD components, including bulk explosives and chemical warfare agents, chemical munitions, rockets, guided and ballistic missiles, bombs, warheads, mortar rounds, artillery ammunition, small arms ammunition, grenades, mines, torpedoes, depth charges, cluster munitions and dispensers, demolition charges, and devices and components thereof. Military munitions do not include wholly inert items, improvised explosive devices, and nuclear weapons, nuclear devices, and nuclear components thereof. However, the term does include non-nuclear components of nuclear devices, managed under DOE's nuclear weapons program after all required sanitization operations under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, have been completed.
"Mining overburden returned to the mine site" means any material overlying an economic mineral deposit which is removed to gain access to that deposit and is then used for reclamation of a surface mine.
"Miscellaneous unit" means a hazardous waste management unit where hazardous waste is treated, stored, or disposed of and that is not a container, tank, surface impoundment, pile, land treatment unit, landfill, incinerator, boiler, industrial furnace, underground injection well with appropriate technical standards under 40 CFR Part 146, containment building, corrective action management unit, or unit eligible for a research, development, and demonstration permit under § 270.65, or staging pile.
"Movement" means that hazardous waste transported to a facility in an individual vehicle.
"New hazardous waste management facility" or "new facility" means a facility which began operation, or for which construction commenced after November 19, 1980. (See also "Existing hazardous waste management facility".)
"New tank system" or "new tank component" means a tank system or component that will be used for the storage or treatment of hazardous waste and for which installation has commenced after July 14, 1986; except, however, for purposes of § 264.193(g)(2) and § 265.193(g)(2), a new tank system is one for which construction commences after July 14, 1986. (See also "existing tank system.")
"No free liquids" as used in Rule 23 §§ 262.4(a)(26) and 261.4(b)( 18), means that solvent-contaminated wipes may not contain free liquids as determined by Method 9095B (Paint Filter Liquids Test), included in "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods" (EPA Publication SW-846), which is incorporated by reference, and that there is no free liquid in the container holding the wipes. No free liquids may also be determined using another standard or test method as defined by an authorized state.
"Non-acute hazardous waste" means: all hazardous wastes that are not acute hazardous waste, as defined in this section.
"Noncommercial Hazardous Waste Facility" means a hazardous waste management facility which is constructed and operated to store, treat, and/or dispose of hazardous waste which has been generated by the owners or operators of said facility and which storage, treatment or disposal is not undertaken for profit. A noncommercial hazardous waste facility may accept, at cost or profit, hazardous waste which has been generated by persons other than the owners or operators of said facility, provided that the total amount of such wastes does not exceed 5 (five) percent of the facility's annual operating capacity and provided that the permit for said facility authorizes the acceptance of such waste for storage, treatment, and/or disposal.
"On-ground tank" means a device meeting the definition of "tank" in § 260.10 and that is situated in such a way that the bottom of the tank is on the same level as the adjacent surrounding surface so that the external tank bottom cannot be visually inspected.
"On-site" means the same or geographically contiguous property which may be divided by public or private right-of-way, provided the entrance and exit between the properties is at a crossroads intersection, and access is by crossing as opposed to going along, the right-of-way. Noncontiguous properties owned by the same person but connected by a right-of-way which he controls and to which the public does not have access, is also considered on-site property.
"Open burning" means the combustion of any material without the following characteristics:
"Operator" means an individual or individuals charged with the responsibility of managing or operating a hazardous waste management facility, including the responsibility for assuring the operation of said facility is in accordance with the provisions of this hazardous waste management rule.
"Owner" means the person who owns a facility or part of a facility.
"Partial Closure" means the closure of a hazardous waste management unit in accordance with the applicable closure requirements of Sections 264 and 265 of this rule at a facility that contains other active hazardous waste management units. For example, partial closure may include the closure of a tank (including its associated piping and underlying containment systems), landfill cell, surface impoundment, waste pile, or other hazardous waste management unit, while other units of the same facility continue to operate.
"Permit" means a written permit issued by the Arkansas Department of Transportation authorizing a person to transport hazardous waste (Hazardous Waste Transportation Permit), or a written permit issued by the Division of Environmental Quality authorizing the establishment, construction, operation, and/or maintenance of a hazardous waste treatment, disposal, or storage facility or site.
"Permitted Site" means any site used for disposal, treatment or storage of hazardous waste which has a current valid operating permit issued by the Division of Environmental Quality.
"Person" means an individual, corporation, company, firm, partnership, association, trust, joint stock company, joint venture, state or federal agency or instrumentality, county, city, town, or municipal authority, trust venture or any other legal entity, or combination of entities however organized.
"Personnel" or "facility personnel" means all persons who work at, or oversee the operations of, a hazardous waste facility, and whose actions or failure to act may result in noncompliance with the requirements of Section 264 or 265 of this rule.
"Pesticide" means any substance or mixture of substances intended for preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating any pest, or intended for use as a plant regulator, defoliant, or desiccant, other than any article that:
"Pile" means any non-containerized accumulation of solid, nonflowing hazardous waste that is used for treatment or storage and that is not a containment building.
"Plasma arc incinerator" means any enclosed device using a high intensity electrical discharge or arc as a source of heat followed by an afterburner using controlled flame combustion and which is not listed as an industrial furnace.
"Point source" means any discernible, confined, and discrete conveyance, including, but not limited to any pipe, ditch, channel, tunnel, conduit, well, discrete fissure, container, rolling stock, concentrated animal feeding operation, or vessel or other floating craft, from which pollutants are or may be discharged. This term does not include return flows from irrigated agriculture.
"Publicly owned treatment works" or "POTW" means any device or system used in the treatment (including recycling and reclamation) f municipal sewage or industrial wastes of a liquid nature which is owned by a "State" or "municipality" (as defined by section 502(4) of the CWA). This definition includes sewers, pipes, or other conveyances only if they convey wastewater to a POTW providing treatment.
"Qualified Groundwater Scientist" means a scientist or engineer who has received a baccalaureate or post-graduate degree in the natural sciences or engineering, and has sufficient training and experience in ground-water hydrology and related fields as may be demonstrated by state registration, professional certifications, or completion of accredited university courses that enable that individual to make sound professional judgements regarding ground-water monitoring and contaminant fate and transport.
"RCRA" means the Solid Waste Disposal Act, as amended by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, as amended, 42 U.S.C. section 6901 et seq.
"Recognized trader" means a person domiciled in the United States, by site of business, who acts to arrange and facilitate transboundary movements of wastes destined for recovery or disposal operations, either by purchasing from and subsequently selling to United States and foreign facilities, or by acting under arrangements with a United States waste facility to arrange for the export or import of the wastes.
"Regional Administrator" means the Regional Administrator for the EPA Region in which the facility is located, or his designee.
"Remanufacturing" means processing a higher-value hazardous secondary material in order to manufacture a product that serves a similar functional purpose as the original commercial-grade material. For the purpose of this definition, a hazardous secondary material is considered higher value if it was generated from the use of a commercial-grade material in a manufacturing process and can be remanufactured into a similar commercial-grade material.
"Remediation waste" means all solid and hazardous wastes, and all media (including groundwater, surface water, soils, and sediments) and debris that are managed for implementing cleanup.
"Remediation waste management site" means a facility where an owner or operator is or will be treating, storing or disposing of hazardous remediation wastes. A remediation waste management site is not a facility that is subject to corrective action under § 264.101 of this rule, but is subject to corrective action requirements if the site is located in such a facility.
"Replacement unit" means a landfill, surface impoundment, or waste pile unit (1) from which all or substantially all of the waste is removed, and (2) that is subsequently reused to treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste. "Replacement unit" does not apply to a unit from which waste is removed during closure, if the subsequent reuse solely involves the disposal of waste from that unit and other closing units or corrective action areas at the facility, in accordance with an approved closure plan or EPA- or State-approved corrective action.
"Representative sample" means a sample of a universe or whole (e.g., waste pile, lagoon, ground water) which can be expected to exhibit the average properties of the universe or whole.
"Run-off" means any rainwater, leachate, or other liquid that drains over land from any part of a facility.
"Run-on" means any rainwater, leachate, or other liquid that drains over land onto any part of a facility.
"Saturated zone" or "zone of saturation" means that part of the earth's crust in which all voids are filled with water.
"Shipper" means any person initiating transportation of hazardous waste. A shipper may include a generator or storage, treatment or disposal facility.
"Site" means any real property located within the boundary of the State of Arkansas which is, has been subsequent to March 14, 1979, or is contemplated to be used for treatment, storage, disposal, or generation of hazardous wastes.
"Sludge" means any solid, semi-solid, or liquid waste generated from a municipal, commercial, or industrial wastewater treatment plant, water supply treatment plant, or air pollution control facility exclusive of the treated effluent from a wastewater treatment plant.
"Sludge dryer" means any enclosed thermal treatment device that is used to dehydrate sludge and that has a maximum total thermal input, excluding the heating value of the sludge itself, of 2,500 BTU/lb of sludge treated on a wet-weight basis.
"Small Quantity Generator" means a generator who generates the following amounts in a calendar month.
"Solid waste" means a solid waste as defined in § 261.2 of this rule.
"Solid waste management unit", or "SWMU" means any discernible unit at which solid wastes have been placed at any time, irrespective of whether the unit was intended for the management of solid or hazardous wastes. Such units include any area at a facility at which solid wastes have been routinely or systematically released.
"Solvent-contaminated wipe" means a wipe that, after use or after cleaning up a spill either (1) contains one or more of the F001 through F005 solvents listed in Rule 23 § 261.31 or the corresponding P- or U- listed solvents found in Rule 23 § 261.33; (2) exhibits a hazardous characteristic found in Rule 23 § 261 subsection C when that characteristic results from a solvent listed in Rule 23 § 261; and/or (3) exhibits only the hazardous waste characteristic of ignitability found in Rule 23 § 261.21 due to the presence of one or more solvents that are not listed in Rule 23 § 261. Solvent contaminated wipes that contain listed hazardous waste other than solvents, or exhibit the characteristic of toxicity, corrosivity, or reactivity due to contaminants other than solvents, are not eligible for the exclusions at Rule 23 § §261.4(a)(26) and 261.4(b)(18).
"Sorbent" means a material that is used to soak up free liquids by either adsorption or absorption, or both. "Sorb" means to either adsorb or absorb, or both.
"Staging pile" means an accumulation of solid, non-flowing remediation waste (as defined in this section) that is not a containment building and that is used only during remedial operations for temporary storage at a facility. Staging piles must be designated by the Director according to the requirements of § 264.554 of this rule.
"State" means any of the several States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
"Storage" means the holding of hazardous waste for a temporary period, at the end of which the hazardous waste is treated, disposed of, or stored elsewhere.
"Sump" means any pit or reservoir that meets the definition of tank and those troughs/trenches connected to it that serve to collect hazardous waste for transport to hazardous waste storage, treatment, or disposal facilities; except that as used in the landfill, surface impoundment, and waste pile rules, "sump" means any lined pit or reservoir that serves to collect liquids drained from a leachate collection and removal system or leak detection system for subsequent removal from the system.
"Surface impoundment or impoundment" means a facility or part of a facility which is a natural topographic depression, man-made excavation, or diked area formed primarily of earthen materials (although it may be lined with man-made materials), which is designed to hold an accumulation of liquid wastes or wastes containing free liquids, and which is not an injection well. Examples of surface impoundments are holding, storage, settling, and aeration pits, ponds, and lagoons.
"Tank" means a stationary device, designed to contain an accumulation of hazardous waste which is constructed primarily of non-earthen materials (e.g., wood, concrete, steel, plastic) which provide structural support.
"Tank system" means a hazardous waste storage or treatment tank and its associated ancillary equipment and containment system.
"TEQ" means toxicity equivalence, the international method of relating the toxicity of various dioxin/furan congeners to the toxicity of 2,3,7,8-tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin.
"Thermal treatment" means the treatment of hazardous waste in a device which uses elevated temperatures as the primary means to change the chemical, physical, or biological character or composition of the hazardous waste. Examples of thermal treatment processes are incineration, molten salt, pyrolysis, calcination, wet air oxidation, and microwave discharge. (See also "incinerator" and "open burning".)
"Thermostat" means a temperature control device that contains metallic mercury in an ampule attached to a bimetal sensing element, and mercury-containing ampules that have been removed from these temperature control devices in compliance with the requirements of § 273.13(c)(2) or 273.33(c)(2).
"Totally enclosed treatment facility" means a facility for the treatment of hazardous waste which is directly connected to an industrial production process and which is constructed and operated in a manner which prevents the release of any hazardous waste or any constituent thereof into the environment during treatment. An example is a pipe in which waste acid is neutralized.
"Transfer facility" means any transportation-related facility including loading docks, parking areas, storage areas and other similar areas where shipments of hazardous waste or hazardous secondary materials are held during the normal course of transportation.
"Transport" means the movement of wastes from the point of generation to any intermediate points, or to the point of ultimate storage, treatment or disposal.
"Transport vehicle" means a motor vehicle or rail car used for the transportation of cargo by any mode. Each cargo-carrying body (trailer, railroad freight car, etc.) is a separate transport vehicle.
"Transportation" means the movement of hazardous waste by air, rail, highway, or water.
"Transporter" means a person engaged in the offsite transportation of hazardous waste by air, rail, highway, or water.
"Treatability study" means a study in which a hazardous waste is subjected to a treatment process to determine:
"Treatment" means any method, technique, or process, including neutralization, designed to change the physical, chemical, or biological character or composition of any hazardous waste so as to neutralize such waste, or so as to recover energy or material resources from the waste, or so as to render such waste non-hazardous, or less hazardous; safer to transport, store, or dispose of; or amenable for recovery, amenable for storage, or reduced in volume.
"Treatment Facility" means a location at which waste is subject to treatment and may include a facility where waste has been generated.
"Treatment zone" means a soil area of the unsaturated zone of a land treatment unit within which hazardous constituents are degraded, transformed, or immobilized.
"Ultimate Controlling Person" means a person who is not controlled by another person.
"Underground injection" means the subsurface emplacement of fluids through a bored, drilled or driven well; or through a dug well, where the depth of the dug well is greater than the largest surface dimension. (See also "injection well".)
"Underground tank" means a device meeting the definition of "tank" in § 260.10 whose entire surface area is totally below the surface of and covered by the ground.
" Unfit-for-use tank system" means a tank system that has been determined through an integrity assessment or other inspection to be no longer capable of storing or treating hazardous waste without posing a threat of release of hazardous waste to the environment.
"Unsaturated zone" or "zone of aeration" means the zone between the land surface and the water table.
"User of the electronic manifest system" means a hazardous waste generator, a hazardous waste transporter, an owner or operator of a hazardous waste treatment, storage, recycling, or disposal facility, or any other person that:
"United States" means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the U.S. Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
"Universal Waste" means any of the following hazardous wastes that are managed under the universal waste requirements of Section 273 of this rule:
"Universal Waste Handler":
"Universal Waste Transporter" means a person engaged in the off-site transportation of universal waste by air, rail, highway, or water.
"Uppermost aquifer" means the geologic formation nearest the natural ground surface that is an aquifer, as well as lower aquifers that are hydraulically inter-connected with this aquifer within the facility's property boundary.
"Used oil" means any oil that has been refined from crude oil, or any synthetic oil, and as a result of such use is contaminated by physical or chemical impurities.
"User of the electronic manifest system" means a hazardous waste generator, a hazardous waste transporter, an owner or operator of a hazardous waste treatment, storage, recycling, or disposal facility, or any other person that:
"Very small quantity generator" means: a generator who generates less than or equal to the following amounts in a calendar month:
"Vessel" includes every description of watercraft, used or capable of being used as a means of transportation on the water.
"Wastewater treatment unit" means a device which:
"Water (bulk shipment)" means the bulk transportation of hazardous waste which is loaded or carried on board a vessel without containers or labels.
"Well" means any shaft or pit dug or bored into the earth, generally of a cylindrical form, and often walled with bricks or tubing to prevent the earth from caving in.
"Well injection" (See "underground injection".)
"Wipe" means a woven or non-woven shop towel, rag, pad, or swab made of wood pulp, fabric, cotton, polyester blends, or other material.
"Zone of engineering control" means an area under the control of the owner/operator that, upon detection of a hazardous waste release, can be readily cleaned up prior to the release of hazardous waste or hazardous constituents to ground water or surface water.
________________
"I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and am familiar with the information submitted in this demonstration and all attached documents, and that, based on my inquiry of those individuals immediately responsible for obtaining the information, I believe that the submitted information is true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment."
In accordance with the standards and criteria in § 260.31 and § 260.34 and the procedures in § 260.33, the Director may determine on a case-by-case basis that the following recycled materials are not solid wastes:
In accordance with the standards and criteria in § 260.10 (definition of "boiler"), and the procedures in § 260.33, the Director may determine on a case-by-case basis that certain enclosed devices using controlled flame combustion are boilers, even though they do not otherwise meet the definition of boiler contained in § 260.10, after considering the following criteria:
The Director will use the following procedures in evaluating applications for variances from classification as a solid waste, applications to classify particular enclosed controlled flame combustion devices as boilers, or applications for non-waste determinations.
The Director will use the following procedures when determining whether to regulate hazardous waste recycling activities described in § 261.6(a)(2)(iii) under the provisions of § 261.6 (b) and (c), rather than under the provisions of Subsection F of Section 266 of this rule.
Table 1
Use constituting disposal (§261.2(c)(1)) | Energy recovery/fuel (§261.2(c)(2)) | Reclamation (§261.2(c)(3)), except as provided in §§261.4(a)(17), 261.4(a)(23), 261.4(a)(24) or 261.4(a)(27) | Speculative accumulation (§261.2(c)(4)) | |
1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | |
Spent Materials | (*) | (*) | (*) | (*) |
Sludges (listed in 40 CFR part 261 .31 or 261.32) | (*) | (*) | (*) | (*) |
Sludges exhibiting a characteristic of hazardous waste | (*) | (*) | - | (*) |
By-products (listed in 40 CFR 261.31 or 261.32) | (*) | (*) | (*) | (*) |
By-products exhibiting a characteristic of hazardous waste | (*) | (*) | - | (*) |
Commercial chemical products listed in 40 CFR 261.33 | (*) | (*) | - | - |
Scrap metal that is not excluded under 40 CFR | (*) | (*) | (*) | (*) |
261.4(a)(13) |
Note: The terms "spent materials", "sludges", "by-product", "scrap metal", and "processed scrap metal" are defined in § 261.1.
ConstituentMaximum for any single composite sample-TCLP (mg/l)
Generic exclusion levels for K061 and K062 nonwastewater HTMR residues
Antimony | 0.10 |
Arsenic | 0.50 |
Barium | 7.6 |
Beryllium | 0.010 |
Cadmium | 0.050 |
Chromium (total) 0.33 | |
Lead | 0.15 |
Mercury | 0.009 |
Nickel | 1.0 |
Selenium | 0.16 |
Silver | 0.30 |
Thallium | 0.020 |
Zinc | 70 |
Generic exclusion levels for F006 nonwastewater HTMR residues
Antimony | 0.10 |
Arsenic | 0.50 |
Barium | 7.6 |
Beryllium | 0.010 |
Cadmium | 0.050 |
Chromium (total) | 0.33 |
Cyanide (total) (mg/kg) 1.8 | |
Lead | 0.15 |
Mercury | 0.009 |
Nickel | 1.0 |
Selenium | 0.16 |
Silver | 0.30 |
Thallium | 0.020 |
Zinc | 70 |
Comment: This exclusion applies only to the actual point source discharge. It does not exclude industrial wastewaters while they are being collected, stored or treated before discharge, nor does it exclude sludges that are generated by industrial wastewater treatment.
Factors to be considered for assessing the groundwater, surface water, air exposure pathways are: the volume and physical and chemical properties of the spent material, including its potential for migration off the pad; the potential for human or environmental exposure to hazardous constituents migrating from the pad via each exposure pathway, and the possibility and extent of harm to human and environmental receptors via each exposure pathway.
Constituent | Maximum Allowable Total Concentration in Fertilizer, per Unit(1%) of Zinc (ppm) |
Arsenic | 0.3 |
Cadmium | 1.4 |
Chromium | 0.6 |
Lead | 2.8 |
Mercury | 0.3 |
I certify under penalty of law that the carbon dioxide stream that I am claiming to be excluded under 40 C.F.R. § 261.4(h) has not been mixed with hazardous wastes, and I have transported the carbon dioxide stream in compliance with (or have contracted with a pipeline operator or transporter to transport the carbon dioxide stream in compliance with) Department of Transportation requirements, including the pipeline safety laws (49 U.S.C. § 60101 et seq.) and regulations (49 C.F.R. Parts 190-199) of the U.S. Department of Transportation, and the pipeline safety regulations adopted and administered by a state authority pursuant to a certification under 49 U.S.C. § 60105, as applicable, for injection into a well subject to the requirements for the Class VI Underground Injection Control Program of the Safe Drinking Water Act.
I certify under penalty of law that the carbon dioxide stream that I am claiming to be excluded under 40 C.F.R. § 261.4(h) has not been mixed with, or otherwise co-injected with, hazardous waste at the Underground Injection Control (UIC) Class VI permitted facility, and that injection of the carbon dioxide stream is in compliance with the applicable requirements for UIC Class VI wells, including the applicable requirements in 40 CFR Parts 144 and 146.
The disposal of PCB-containing dielectric fluid and electric equipment containing such fluid authorized for use and regulated under 40 CFR Part 761 and that are hazardous only because they fail the test for the toxicity characteristic (hazardous waste codes D018 through D043 only) are exempt from regulation under Sections 261 through 265, and Sections 268 and 270 of this rule, and the notification requirements of Section 3010 of the RCRA.
The wastes listed in this section are exempt from regulation under Sections 262 through 270 of this rule except as specified in Section 273 of this rule and, therefore are not fully regulated as hazardous waste. The wastes listed in this section are subject to regulation under Section 273:
Comment: § 262.11 of this rule sets forth the generator's responsibility to determine whether his waste exhibits one or more of the characteristics identified in this subsection.
Comment: Since the Appendix I sampling methods are not being formally adopted by the Director, a person who desires to employ an alternative sampling method is not required to demonstrate the equivalency of his method under the procedures set forth in §§ 260.20 and 260.21.
The method of sampling and test procedure shall be acceptable to the Bureau of Explosives and approved by the director, Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Technology, U.S. Department of Transportation (see Note 2).
Note 1: A description of the Bureau of Explosives' Flame Projection Apparatus, Open Drum Apparatus, Closed Drum Apparatus, and method of tests may be procured from the Bureau of Explosives.
Note 2: As part of a U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) reorganization, the Office of Hazardous Materials Technology (OHMT), which was the office listed in the 1980 publication of 49 CFR 173.300 for the purposes of approving sampling and test procedures for a flammable gas, ceased operations on February 20, 2005. OHMT programs have moved to the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA) in the DOT.
Note 3: As part of a U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) reorganization, the Research and Special Programs Administration (RSPA), which was the office listed in the 1980 publication of 49 CFR 173.151a for the purposes of determining that a material does not present a hazard in transport, ceased operations on February 20, 2005. RSPA programs have moved to the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA) in the DOT.
Note 4: The DOT regulatory definition of an oxidizer was contained in § 173.151 of 49 CFR, and the definition of an organic peroxide was contained in paragraph 173.151a. An organic peroxide is a type of oxidizer.
Table 1.
Maximum Concentration of Contaminants for the
Toxicity Characteristic
EPA HW Number | Contaminant | CAS No.2 | Regulatory Level (mg/L) |
D004 | Arsenic | 7440-38-2 | 5.0 |
D005 | Barium | 7440-39-3 | 100.0 |
D018 | Benzene | 71-43-2 | 0.5 |
D006 | Cadmium | 7440-43-9 | 1.0 |
D019 | Carbon tetrachloride | 56-23-5 | 0.5 |
D020 | Chlordane | 57-74-9 | 0.03 |
D021 | Chlorobenzene | 108-90-7 | 100.0 |
D022 | Chloroform | 67-66-3 | 6.0 |
D007 | Chromium | 7440-47-3 | 5.0 |
D023 | o-Cresol | 95-48-7 | 4200.0 |
D024 | m-Cresol | 108-39-4 | 4200.0 |
D025 | p-Cresol | 106-44-5 | 4200.0 |
D026 | Cresol | 4200.0 | |
D016 | 2,4-D | 94-75-7 | 10.0 |
D027 | 1,4-Dichlorobenzene | 106-46-7 | 7.5 |
D028 | 1,2-Dichloroethane | 107-06-2 | 0.5 |
D029 | 1,1-Dichloroethylene | 75-35-4 | 0.7 |
D030 | 2,4-Dinitrotoluene | 121-14-2 | 30.13 |
D012 | Endrin | 72-20-8 | 0.02 |
D031 | Heptachlor (and its epoxide) | 76-44-8 | 0.008 |
D032 | Hexachlorobenzene | 118-74-1 | 30.13 |
D033 | Hexachlorobutadiene | 87-68-3 | 0.5 |
D034 | Hexachloroethane | 67-72-1 | 3.0 |
D008 | Lead | 7439-92-1 | 5.0 |
D013 | Lindane | 58-89-9 | 0.4 |
D009 | Mercury | 7439-97-6 | 0.2 |
D014 | Methoxychlor | 72-43-5 | 10.0 |
DOS 5 | Methyl ethyl ketone | 78-93-3 | 200.0 |
D036 | Nitrobenzene | 98-95-3 | 2.0 |
D037 | Pentachlorophenol | 87-86-5 | 100.0 |
DOS 8 | Pyridine | 110-86-1 | 35.0 |
DOlO | Selenium | 7782-49-2 | 1.0 |
DOll | Silver | 7440-22-4 | 5.0 |
D039 | Tetrachloroethylene | 127-18-4 | 0.7 |
D015 | Toxaphene | 8001-35-2 | 0.5 |
D040 | Trichl oroethyl ene | 79-01-6 | 0.5 |
D041 | 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol | 95-95-4 | 400.0 |
D042 | 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol | 88-06-2 | 2.0 |
D017 | 2,4,5-TP (Silvex) | 93-72-1 | 1.0 |
D043 | Vinyl chloride | 75-01-4 | 0.2 |
Ignitable Waste | (I) |
Corrosive Waste | (C) |
Reactive Waste | (R) |
Toxicity Characteristic Waste | (E) |
Acute Hazardous Waste | (H) |
Toxic Waste | (T) |
Appendix VII identifies the constituent which caused the Director to list the waste as a Toxicity Characteristic Waste (E) or Toxic Waste (T) in §§ 261.31 and 261.32.
Industry and EPA hazardous waste Code | Hazardous waste | Hazard code |
Generic: | ||
F001 | The following spent halogenated solvents used in degreasing: Tetrachloroethylene, trichloroethylene, methylene chloride, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, carbon tetrachloride, and chlorinated fluorocarbons; all spent solvent mixtures/blends used in degreasing containing, before use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F002, F004, and F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvent mixtures | (T) |
F002 | The following spent halogenated solvents: Tetrachloroethylene, methylene chloride, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, chlorobenzene, 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane, ortho-dichlorobenzene, trichlorofluoromethane, and 1,1,2-trichloroethane; all spent solvent mixtures/blends containing, before use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above halogenated solvents or those listed in F001, F004, or F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvent mixtures | (T) |
F003 | The following spent non-halogenated solvents: Xylene, acetone, ethyl acetate, ethyl benzene, ethyl ether, methyl isobutyl ketone, n-butyl alcohol, cyclohexanone, and methanol; all spent solvent mixtures/blends containing, before use, only the above spent non-halogenated solvents; and all spent solvent mixtures/blends containing, before use, one or more of the above non-halogenated solvents, and, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of those solvents listed in F001, F002, F004, and F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvent mixtures | (I)* |
F004 | The following spent non-halogenated solvents: Cresols and cresylic acid, and nitrobenzene; all spent solvent mixtures/blends containing, before use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above non-halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F001, F002, and F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvent mixtures | (T) |
F005 | The following spent non-halogenated solvents: Toluene, methyl ethyl ketone, carbon disulfide, isobutanol, pyridine, benzene, 2-ethoxyethanol, and 2-nitropropane; all spent solvent mixtures/blends containing, before use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above non-halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F001, F002, or F004; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvent mixtures | (I,T) |
F006 | Wastewater treatment sludges from electroplating operations except from the following processes: (1) Sulfuric acid anodizing of aluminum; (2) tin plating on carbon steel; (3) zinc plating (segregated basis) on carbon steel; (4) aluminum or zinc-aluminum plating on carbon steel; (5) cleaning/stripping associated with tin, zinc and aluminum plating on carbon steel; and (6) chemical etching and milling of aluminum | (T) |
F007 | Spent cyanide plating bath solutions from electroplating operations | (R, T) |
F008 | Plating bath residues from the bottom of plating baths from electroplating operations where cyanides are used in the process | (R, T) |
F009 | Spent stripping and cleaning bath solutions from electroplating operations where cyanides are used in the process | (R, T) |
F010 | Quenching bath residues from oil baths from metal heat treating operations where cyanides are used in the process | (R, T) |
F011 | Spent cyanide solutions from salt bath pot cleaning from metal heat treating operations | (R, T) |
F012 | Quenching waste water treatment sludges from metal heat treating operations where cyanides are used in the process | (T) |
F019 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the chemical conversion coating of aluminum except from zirconium phosphating in aluminum can washing when such phosphating is an exclusive conversion coating process. Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing of motor vehicles using a zinc phosphating process will not be subject to this listing at the point of generation if the wastes are not placed outside on the land prior to shipment to a landfill for disposal and are either: disposed in a Subtitle D municipal or industrial landfill unit that is equipped with a single clay liner and is permitted, licensed or otherwise authorized by the state; or disposed in a landfill unit subject to, or otherwise meeting, the landfill requirements in §258.40, §264.301 or §265.301. For the purposes of this listing, motor vehicle manufacturing is defined in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section and (b)(4)(ii) of this section describes the recordkeeping requirements for motor vehicle manufacturing facilities | (T) |
F020 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production or manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tri-or tetrachlorophenol, or of intermediates used to produce their pesticide derivatives. (This listing does not include wastes from the production of Hexachlorophene from highly purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol.) | (H) |
F021 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production or manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of pentachlorophenol, or of intermediates used to produce its derivatives | (H) |
F022 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tetra-, penta-, or hexachlorobenzenes under alkaline conditions | (H) |
F023 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production of materials on equipment previously used for the production or manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tri- and tetrachlorophenols. (This listing does not include wastes from equipment used only for the production or use of Hexachlorophene from highly purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol.) | (H) |
F024 | Process wastes, including but not limited to, distillation residues, heavy ends, tars, and reactor clean-out wastes, from the production of certain chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons by free radical catalyzed processes. These chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons are those having carbon chain lengths ranging from one to and including five, with varying amounts and positions of chlorine substitution. (This listing does not include wastewaters, wastewater treatment sludges, spent catalysts, and wastes listed in §261.31 or §261.32.) | (T) |
F025 | Condensed light ends, spent filters and filter aids, and spent desiccant wastes from the production of certain chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons, by free radical catalyzed processes. These chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons are those having carbon chain lengths ranging from one to and including five, with varying amounts and positions of chlorine substitution | (T) |
F026 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production of materials on equipment previously used for the manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tetra-, penta-, or hexachlorobenzene under alkaline conditions | (H) |
F027 | Discarded unused formulations containing tri-, tetra-, or pentachlorophenol or discarded unused formulations containing compounds derived from these chlorophenols. (This listing does not include formulations containing Hexachlorophene synthesized from prepurified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol as the sole component.) | (H) |
F028 | Residues resulting from the incineration or thermal treatment of soil contaminated with EPA Hazardous Waste Nos. F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, and F027 | (T) |
F032 | Wastewaters (except those that have not come into contact with process contaminants), process residuals, preservative drippage, and spent formulations from wood preserving processes generated at plants that currently use or have previously used chlorophenolic formulations (except potentially cross-contaminated wastes that have had the F032 waste code deleted in accordance with §261.35 of this chapter or potentially cross-contaminated wastes that are otherwise currently regulated as hazardous wastes (i.e., F034 or F035), and where the generator does not resume or initiate use of chlorophenolic formulations). This listing does not include K001 bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewater from wood preserving processes that use creosote and/or pentachlorophenol | (T) |
F034 | Wastewaters (except those that have not come into contact with process contaminants), process residuals, preservative drippage, and spent formulations from wood preserving processes generated at plants that use creosote formulations. This listing does not include K001 bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewater from wood preserving processes that use creosote and/or pentachlorophenol | (T) |
F035 | Wastewaters (except those that have not come into contact with process contaminants), process residuals, preservative drippage, and spent formulations from wood preserving processes generated at plants that use inorganic preservatives containing arsenic or chromium. This listing does not include K001 bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewater from wood preserving processes that use creosote and/or pentachlorophenol | (T) |
F037 | Petroleum refinery primary oil/water/solids separation sludge-Any sludge generated from the gravitational separation of oil/water/solids during the storage or treatment of process wastewaters and oily cooling wastewaters from petroleum refineries. Such sludges include, but are not limited to, those generated in oil/water/solids separators; tanks and impoundments; ditches and other conveyances; sumps; and stormwater units receiving dry weather flow. Sludge generated in stormwater units that do not receive dry weather flow, sludges generated from non-contact once-through cooling waters segregated for treatment from other process or oily cooling waters, sludges generated in aggressive biological treatment units as defined in §261.31(b)(2) (including sludges generated in one or more additional units after wastewaters have been treated in aggressive biological treatment units) and K051 wastes are not included in this listing. This listing does include residuals generated from processing or recycling oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials excluded under §261.4(a)(12)(i), if those residuals are to be disposed of | (T) |
F038 | Petroleum refinery secondary (emulsified) oil/water/solids separation sludge-Any sludge and/or float generated from the physical and/or chemical separation of oil/water/solids in process wastewaters and oily cooling wastewaters from petroleum refineries. Such wastes include, but are not limited to, all sludges and floats generated in: induced air flotation (IAF) units, tanks and impoundments, and all sludges generated in DAF units. Sludges generated in stormwater units that do not receive dry weather flow, sludges generated from non-contact once-through cooling waters segregated for treatment from other process or oily cooling waters, sludges and floats generated in aggressive biological treatment units as defined in §261.31(b)(2) (including sludges and floats generated in one or more additional units after wastewaters have been treated in aggressive biological treatment units) and F037, K048, and K051 wastes are not included in this listing | (T) |
F039 | Leachate (liquids that have percolated through land disposed wastes) resulting from the disposal of more than one restricted waste classified as hazardous under subpart D of this part. (Leachate resulting from the disposal of one or more of the following EPA Hazardous Wastes and no other Hazardous Wastes retains its EPA Hazardous Waste Number(s): F020, F021, F022, F026, F027, and/or F028.) | (T) |
FOOTNOTE: *(I,T) should be used to specify mixtures that are ignitable and contain toxic constituents.
Industry and EPA hazardous waste No. | Hazardous waste | Hazard code |
Wood preservation: | Bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewaters from | (T) |
K001 | wood preserving processes that use creosote and/or pentachlorophenol | |
Inorganic pigments: | ||
K002 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome yellow and orange pigments | (T) |
K003 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of molybdate orange pigments | (T) |
K004 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of zinc yellow pigments | (T) |
K005 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome green pigments | (T) |
K006 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome oxide green pigments (anhydrous and hydrated) | (T) |
K007 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of iron blue pigments | (T) |
K008 | Oven residue from the production of chrome oxide green pigments | (T) |
Organic chemicals: | ||
K009 | Distillation bottoms from the production of acetaldehyde from ethylene | (T) |
K010 | Distillation side cuts from the production of acetaldehyde from ethylene | (T) |
K011 | Bottom stream from the wastewater stripper in the production of acrylonitrile | (R, T) |
K013 | Bottom stream from the acetonitrile column in the production of acrylonitrile | (R, T) |
K014 | Bottoms from the acetonitrile purification column in the production of acrylonitrile | (T) |
K015 | Still bottoms from the distillation of benzyl chloride | (T) |
K016 | Heavy ends or distillation residues from the production of carbon tetrachloride | (T) |
K017 | Heavy ends (still bottoms) from the purification column in the production of epichlorohydrin | (T) |
K018 | Heavy ends from the fractionation column in ethyl chloride production | (T) |
K019 | Heavy ends from the distillation of ethylene dichloride in ethylene dichloride production | (T) |
K020 | Heavy ends from the distillation of vinyl chloride in vinyl chloride monomer production | (T) |
K021 | Aqueous spent antimony catalyst waste from fluoromethanes production | (T) |
K022 | Distillation bottom tars from the production of phenol/acetone from cumene | (T) |
K023 | Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene | (T) |
K024 | Distillation bottoms from the production of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene | (T) |
K025 | Distillation bottoms from the production of nitrobenzene by the nitration of benzene | (T) |
K026 | Stripping still tails from the production of methy ethyl pyridines | (T) |
K027 | Centrifuge and distillation residues from toluene diisocyanate production | (R, T) |
K028 | Spent catalyst from the hydrochlorinator reactor in the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane | (T) |
K029 | Waste from the product steam stripper in the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane | (T) |
K030 | Column bottoms or heavy ends from the combined production of trichloroethylene and perchloroethylene | (T) |
K083 | Distillation bottoms from aniline production | (T) |
K085 | Distillation or fractionation column bottoms from the production of chlorobenzenes | (T) |
K093 | Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene | (T) |
K094 | Distillation bottoms from the production of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene | (T) |
K095 | Distillation bottoms from the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane | (T) |
K096 | Heavy ends from the heavy ends column from the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane | (T) |
K103 | Process residues from aniline extraction from the production of aniline | (T) |
K104 | Combined wastewater streams generated from nitrobenzene/aniline production | (T) |
K105 | Separated aqueous stream from the reactor product washing step in the production of chlorobenzenes | (T) |
K107 | Column bottoms from product separation from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides | (C,T) |
K108 | Condensed column overheads from product separation and condensed reactor vent gases from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides | (I,T) |
K109 | Spent filter cartridges from product purification from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides | (T) |
K110 | Condensed column overheads from intermediate separation from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides | (T) |
K111 | Product washwaters from the production of dinitrotoluene via nitration of toluene | (C,T) |
K112 | Reaction by-product water from the drying column in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene | (T) |
K113 | Condensed liquid light ends from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene | (T) |
K114 | Vicinals from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene | (T) |
K115 | Heavy ends from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene | (T) |
K116 | Organic condensate from the solvent recovery column in the production of toluene diisocyanate via phosgenation of toluenediamine | (T) |
K117 | Wastewater from the reactor vent gas scrubber in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene | (T) |
K118 | Spent adsorbent solids from purification of ethylene dibromide in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene | (T) |
K136 | Still bottoms from the purification of ethylene dibromide in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene | (T) |
K149 | Distillation bottoms from the production of alpha- (or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional groups, (This waste does not include still bottoms from the distillation of benzyl chloride.) | (T) |
K150 | Organic residuals, excluding spent carbon adsorbent, from the spent chlorine gas and hydrochloric acid recovery processes associated with the production of alpha- (or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional groups | (T) |
K151 | Wastewater treatment sludges, excluding neutralization and biological sludges, generated during the treatment of wastewaters from the production of alpha- (or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional groups | (T) |
K156 | Organic waste (including heavy ends, still bottoms, light ends, spent solvents, filtrates, and decantates) from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. (This listing does not apply to wastes generated from the manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.) | (T) |
K157 | Wastewaters (including scrubber waters, condenser waters, washwaters, and separation waters) from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. (This listing does not apply to wastes generated from the manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.) | (T) |
K158 | Bag house dusts and filter/separation solids from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. (This listing does not apply to wastes generated from the manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.) | (T) |
K159 | Organics from the treatment of thiocarbamate wastes | (T) |
K161 | Purification solids (including filtration, evaporation, and centrifugation solids), bag house dust and floor sweepings from the production of dithiocarbamate acids and their salts. (This listing does not include K125 or K126.) | (R,T) |
K174 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of ethylene dichloride or vinyl chloride monomer (including sludges that result from commingled ethylene dichloride or vinyl chloride monomer wastewater and other wastewater), unless the sludges meet the following conditions: (i) they are disposed of in a subtitle C or non-hazardous landfill licensed or permitted by the state or federal government; (ii) they are not otherwise placed on the land prior to final disposal; and (iii) the generator maintains documentation demonstrating that the waste was either disposed of in an on-site landfill or consigned to a transporter or disposal facility that provided a written commitment to dispose of the waste in an off-site landfill. Respondents in any action brought to enforce the requirements of subtitle C must, upon a showing by the government that the respondent managed wastewater treatment sludges from the production of vinyl chloride monomer or ethylene dichloride, demonstrate that they meet the terms of the exclusion set forth above. In doing so, they must provide appropriate documentation (e.g., contracts between the generator and the landfill owner/operator, invoices documenting delivery of waste to landfill, etc.) that the terms of the exclusion were met | (T) |
K175 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of vinyl chloride monomer using mercuric chloride catalyst in an acetylene-based process | (T) |
K181 | Nonwastewaters from the production of dyes and/or pigments (including nonwastewaters commingled at the point of generation with nonwastewaters from other processes) that, at the point of generation, contain mass loadings of any of the constituents identified in paragraph (c) of this section that are equal to or greater than the corresponding paragraph (c) levels, as determined on a calendar year basis. These wastes will not be hazardous if the nonwastewaters are: (i) disposed in a Subtitle D landfill unit subject to the design criteria in §258.40, (ii) disposed in a Subtitle C landfill unit subject to either §264.301 or §265.301, (iii) disposed in other Subtitle D landfill units that meet the design criteria in §258.40, §264.301, or §265.301, or (iv) treated in a combustion unit that is permitted under Subtitle C, or an onsite combustion unit that is permitted under the Clean Air Act. For the purposes of this listing, dyes and/or pigments production is defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Paragraph (d) of this section describes the process for demonstrating that a facility's nonwastewaters are not K181. This listing does not apply to wastes that are otherwise identified as hazardous under §§261.21-261.24 and 261.31-261.33 at the point of generation. Also, the listing does not apply to wastes generated before any annual mass loading limit is met | (T) |
Inorganic chemicals: | ||
K071 | Brine purification muds from the mercury cell process in chlorine production, where separately prepurified brine is not used | (T) |
K073 | Chlorinated hydrocarbon waste from the purification step of the diaphragm cell process using graphite anodes in chlorine production | (T) |
K106 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the mercury cell process in chlorine production | (T) |
K176 | Baghouse filters from the production of antimony oxide, including filters from the production of intermediates (e.g., antimony metal or crude antimony oxide) | (E) |
K177 | Slag from the production of antimony oxide that is speculatively accumulated or disposed, including slag from the production of intermediates (e.g., antimony metal or crude antimony oxide) | (T) |
K178 | Residues from manufacturing and manufacturing-site storage of ferric chloride from acids formed during the production of titanium dioxide using the chloride-ilmenite process | (T) |
Pesticides: | ||
K031 | By-product salts generated in the production of MSMA and cacodylic acid | (T) |
K032 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chlordane | (T) |
K033 | Wastewater and scrub water from the chlorination of cyclopentadiene in the production of chlordane | (T) |
K034 | Filter solids from the filtration of hexachlorocyclopentadiene in the production of chlordane | (T) |
K035 | Wastewater treatment sludges generated in the production of creosote | (T) |
K036 | Still bottoms from toluene reclamation distillation in the production of disulfoton | (T) |
K037 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of disulfoton | (T) |
K038 | Wastewater from the washing and stripping of phorate production | (T) |
K039 | Filter cake from the filtration of diethylphosphorodithioic acid in the production of phorate | (T) |
K040 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of phorate | (T) |
K041 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of toxaphene | (T) |
K042 | Heavy ends or distillation residues from the distillation of tetrachlorobenzene in the production of 2,4,5-T | (T) |
K043 | 2,6-Dichlorophenol waste from the production of 2,4-D | (T) |
K097 | Vacuum stripper discharge from the chlordane chlorinator in the production of chlordane | (T) |
K098 | Untreated process wastewater from the production of toxaphene | (T) |
K099 | Untreated wastewater from the production of 2,4-D | (T) |
K123 | Process wastewater (including supernates, filtrates, and washwaters) from the production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salt | (T) |
K124 | Reactor vent scrubber water from the production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts | (C, T) |
K125 | Filtration, evaporation, and centrifugation solids from the production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts | (T) |
K126 | Baghouse dust and floor sweepings in milling and packaging operations from the production or formulation of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts | (T) |
K131 | Wastewater from the reactor and spent sulfuric acid from the acid dryer from the production of methyl bromide | (C, T) |
K132 | Spent absorbent and wastewater separator solids from the production of methyl bromide | (T) |
Explosives: | ||
K044 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing and processing of explosives | (R) |
K045 | Spent carbon from the treatment of wastewater containing explosives | (R) |
K046 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing, formulation and loading of lead-based initiating compounds | (T) |
K047 | Pink/red water from TNT operations | (R) |
Petroleum refining: | ||
K048 | Dissolved air flotation (DAF) float from the petroleum refining industry | (T) |
K049 | Slop oil emulsion solids from the petroleum refining industry | (T) |
K050 | Heat exchanger bundle cleaning sludge from the petroleum refining industry | (T) |
K051 | API separator sludge from the petroleum refining industry | (T) |
K052 | Tank bottoms (leaded) from the petroleum refining industry | (T) |
K169 | Crude oil storage tank sediment from petroleum refining operations | (T) |
K170 | Clarified slurry oil tank sediment and/or in-line filter/separation solids from petroleum refining operations | (T) |
K171 | Spent Hydrotreating catalyst from petroleum refining operations, including guard beds used to desulfurize feeds to other catalytic reactors (this listing does not include inert support media) | (I,T) |
K172 | Spent Hydrorefining catalyst from petroleum refining operations, including guard beds used to desulfurize feeds to other catalytic reactors (this listing does not include inert support media) | (I,T) |
Iron and steel: | ||
K061 | Emission control dust/sludge from the primary production of steel in electric furnaces | (T) |
K062 | Spent pickle liquor generated by steel finishing operations of facilities within the iron and steel industry (SIC Codes 331 and 332) | (C,T) |
Primary aluminum: | ||
K088 | Spent potliners from primary aluminum reduction | (T) |
Secondary lead: | ||
K069 | Emission control dust/sludge from secondary lead smelting. (Note: This listing is stayed administratively for sludge generated from secondary acid scrubber systems. The stay will remain in effect until further administrative action is taken. If EPA takes further action effecting this stay, EPA will publish a notice of the action in the Federal Register) | (T) |
K100 | Waste leaching solution from acid leaching of emission control dust/sludge from secondary lead smelting | (T) |
Veterinary pharmaceuticals: | ||
K084 | Wastewater treatment sludges generated during the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds | (T) |
K101 | Distillation tar residues from the distillation of aniline-based compounds in the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds | (T) |
K102 | Residue from the use of activated carbon for decolorization in the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds | (T) |
Ink formulation: | ||
K086 | Solvent washes and sludges, caustic washes and sludges, or water washes and sludges from cleaning tubs and equipment used in the formulation of ink from pigments, driers, soaps, and stabilizers containing chromium and lead | (T) |
Coking: | ||
K060 | Ammonia still lime sludge from coking operations | (T) |
K087 | Decanter tank tar sludge from coking operations | (T) |
K141 | Process residues from the recovery of coal tar, including, but not limited to, collecting sump residues from the production of coke from coal or the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal. This listing does not include K087 (decanter tank tar sludges from coking operations) | (T) |
K142 | Tar storage tank residues from the production of coke from coal or from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal | (T) |
K143 | Process residues from the recovery of light oil, including, but not limited to, those generated in stills, decanters, and wash oil recovery units from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal | (T) |
K144 | Wastewater sump residues from light oil refining, including, but not limited to, intercepting or contamination sump sludges from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal | (T) |
K145 | Residues from naphthalene collection and recovery operations from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal | (T) |
K147 | Tar storage tank residues from coal tar refining | (T) |
K148 | Residues from coal tar distillation, including but not limited to, still bottoms | (T) |
Constituent | Chemical Abstracts No. | Mass levels (kg/yr) |
Aniline | 62-53-3 | 9,300 |
o-Anisidine | 90-04-0 | 110 |
4-Chloroaniline | 106-47-8 | 4,800 |
p-Cresidine | 120-71-8 | 660 |
2,4-Dimethylaniline | 95-68-1 | 100 |
1,2-Phenylenediamine | 95-54-5 | 710 |
1,3-Phenylenediamine | 108-45-2 | 1,200 |
The following materials or items are hazardous wastes if and when they are discarded or intended to be discarded as described in § 261.2(a)(2)(i), when they are mixed with waste oil or used oil or other material and applied to the land for dust suppression or road treatment, when they are otherwise applied to the land in lieu of their original intended use or when they are contained in products that are applied to the land in lieu of their original intended use, or when, in lieu of their original intended use, they are produced for use as (or as a component of) a fuel, distributed for use as a fuel, or burned as a fuel.
Comment: Unless the residue is being beneficially used or reused, or legitimately recycled or reclaimed; or being accumulated, stored, transported or treated prior to such use, re-use, recycling or reclamation, the Division considers the residue to be intended for discard, and thus, a hazardous waste. An example of a legitimate re-use of the residue would be where the residue remains in the container and the container is used to hold the same commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate it previously held. An example of the discard of the residue would be where the drum is sent to a drum reconditioner who reconditions the drum but discards the residue.
Comment: The phrase "commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate having the generic name listed in ..." refers to a chemical substance which is manufactured or formulated for commercial or manufacturing use which consists of the commercially pure grade of the chemical, any technical grades of the chemical that are produced or marketed, and all formulations in which the chemical is the sole active ingredient. It does not refer to a material, such as a manufacturing process waste, that contains any of the substances listed in paragraph (e) or (f). Where a manufacturing process waste is deemed to be a hazardous waste because it contains a substance listed in paragraph (e) or (f), such waste will be listed in either § 261.31 or § 261.32 or will be identified as a hazardous waste by the characteristics set forth in subsection C of this section.
Comment: For the convenience of the regulated community the primary hazardous properties of these materials have been indicated by the letters T (Toxicity), and R (Reactivity). Absence of a letter indicates that the compound only is listed for acute toxicity. Wastes are first listed in alphabetical order by substance and then listed again in numerical order by Hazardous Waste Number.
Hazardous waste No. | Chemical abstracts No. | Substance |
P023 | 107-20-0 | Acetaldehyde, chloro- |
P002 | 591-08-2 | Acetamide, N-(aminothioxomethyl)- |
P057 | 640-19-7 | Acetamide, 2-fluoro- |
P058 | 62-74-8 | Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt |
P002 | 591-08-2 | 1-Acetyl-2-thiourea |
P003 | 107-02-8 | Acrolein |
P070 | 116-06-3 | Aldicarb |
P203 | 1646-88-4 | Aldicarb sulfone. |
P004 | 309-00-2 | Aldrin |
P005 | 107-18-6 | Allyl alcohol |
P006 | 20859-73-8 | Aluminum phosphide (R,T) |
P007 | 2763-96-4 | 5-(Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol |
P008 | 504-24-5 | 4-Aminopyridine |
P009 | 131-74-8 | Ammonium picrate (R) |
P119 | 7803-55-6 | Ammonium vanadate |
P099 | 506-61-6 | Argentate(1-), bis(cyano-C)-, potassium |
P010 | 7778-39-4 | Arsenic acid H3 AsO4 |
P012 | 1327-53-3 | Arsenic oxide As2 O3 |
P011 | 1303-28-2 | Arsenic oxide As2 O5 |
P011 | 1303-28-2 | Arsenic pentoxide |
P012 | 1327-53-3 | Arsenic trioxide |
P038 | 692-42-2 | Arsine, diethyl- |
P036 | 696-28-6 | Arsonous dichloride, phenyl- |
P054 | 151-56-4 | Aziridine |
P067 | 75-55-8 | Aziridine, 2-methyl- |
P013 | 542-62-1 | Barium cyanide |
P024 | 106-47-8 | Benzenamine, 4-chloro- |
P077 | 100-01-6 | Benzenamine, 4-nitro- |
P028 | 100-44-7 | Benzene, (chloromethyl)- |
P042 | 51-43-4 | 1,2-Benzenediol, 4-[1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl]-, (R)- |
P046 | 122-09-8 | Benzeneethanamine, alpha,alpha-dimethyl- |
P014 | 108-98-5 | Benzenethiol |
P127 | 1563-66-2 | 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate. |
P188 | 57-64-7 | Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, compd. with (3aS-cis)-1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethylpyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-yl methylcarbamate ester (1:1). |
P001 | 181-81-2 | 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, & salts, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% |
P028 | 100-44-7 | Benzyl chloride |
P015 | 7440-41-7 | Beryllium powder |
P017 | 598-31-2 | Bromoacetone |
P018 | 357-57-3 | Brucine |
P045 | 39196-18-4 | 2-Butanone, 3,3-dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime |
P021 | 592-01-8 | Calcium cyanide |
P021 | 592-01-8 | Calcium cyanide Ca(CN)2 |
P189 | 55285-14-8 | Carbamic acid, [(dibutylamino)- thio]methyl-, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl- 7-benzofuranyl ester. |
P191 | 644-64-4 | Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 1-[(dimethyl-amino)carbonyl]- 5-methyl-1H- pyrazol-3-yl ester. |
P192 | 119-38-0 | Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 3-methyl-1- (1-methylethyl)-1H- pyrazol-5-yl ester. |
P190 | 1129-41-5 | Carbamic acid, methyl-, 3-methylphenyl ester. |
P127 | 1563-66-2 | Carbofuran. |
P022 | 75-15-0 | Carbon disulfide |
P095 | 75-44-5 | Carbonic dichloride |
P189 | 55285-14-8 | Carbosulfan. |
P023 | 107-20-0 | Chloroacetaldehyde |
P024 | 106-47-8 | p-Chloroaniline |
P026 | 5344-82-1 | 1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea |
P027 | 542-76-7 | 3-Chloropropionitrile |
P029 | 544-92-3 | Copper cyanide |
P029 | 544-92-3 | Copper cyanide Cu(CN) |
P202 | 64-00-6 | m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate. |
P030 | Cyanides (soluble cyanide salts), not otherwise specified | |
P031 | 460-19-5 | Cyanogen |
P033 | 506-77-4 | Cyanogen chloride |
P033 | 506-77-4 | Cyanogen chloride (CN)Cl |
P034 | 131-89-5 | 2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol |
P016 | 542-88-1 | Dichloromethyl ether |
P036 | 696-28-6 | Dichlorophenylarsine |
P037 | 60-57-1 | Dieldrin |
P038 | 692-42-2 | Diethylarsine |
P041 | 311-45-5 | Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate |
P040 | 297-97-2 | O,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate |
P043 | 55-91-4 | Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP) |
P004 | 309-00-2 | 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexa- chloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a,-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta,5alpha,8alpha,8abeta)- |
P060 | 465-73-6 | 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexa- chloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta,5beta,8beta,8abeta)- |
P037 | 60-57-1 | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha,2beta,2aalpha,3beta,6beta,6aalpha,7beta, 7aalpha)- |
P051 | 1 72-20-8 | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth [2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha,2beta,2abeta,3alpha,6alpha,6abeta,7beta, 7aalpha)-, & metabolites |
P044 | 60-51-5 | Dimethoate |
P046 | 122-09-8 | alpha,alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine |
P191 | 644-64-4 | Dimetilan. |
P047 | 1534-52-1 | 4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol, & salts |
P048 | 51-28-5 | 2,4-Dinitrophenol |
P020 | 88-85-7 | Dinoseb |
P085 | 152-16-9 | Diphosphoramide, octamethyl- |
P111 | 107-49-3 | Diphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester |
P039 | 298-04-4 | Disulfoton |
P049 | 541-53-7 | Dithiobiuret |
P185 | 26419-73-8 | 1,3-Dithiolane-2-carboxaldehyde, 2,4-dimethyl-, O- [(methylamino)-carbonyl]oxime. |
P050 | 115-29-7 | Endosulfan |
P088 | 145-73-3 | Endothall |
P051 | 72-20-8 | Endrin |
P051 | 72-20-8 | Endrin, & metabolites |
P042 | 51-43-4 | Epinephrine |
P031 | 460-19-5 | Ethanedinitrile |
P194 | 23135-22-0 | Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-[[(methylamino) carbonyl]oxy]-2-oxo-, methyl ester. |
P066 | 16752-77-5 | Ethanimidothioic acid, N-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]-, methyl ester |
P101 | 107-12-0 | Ethyl cyanide |
P054 | 151-56-4 | Ethyleneimine |
P097 | 52-85-7 | Famphur |
P056 | 7782-41-4 | Fluorine |
P057 | 640-19-7 | Fluoroacetamide |
P058 | 62-74-8 | Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt |
P198 | 23422-53-9 | Formetanate hydrochloride. |
P197 | 17702-57-7 | Formparanate. |
P065 | 628-86-4 | Fulminic acid, mercury(2 +) salt (R,T) |
P059 | 76-44-8 | Heptachlor |
P062 | 757-58-4 | Hexaethyl tetraphosphate |
P116 | 79-19-6 | Hydrazinecarbothioamide |
P068 | 60-34-4 | Hydrazine, methyl- |
P063 | 74-90-8 | Hydrocyanic acid |
P063 | 74-90-8 | Hydrogen cyanide |
P096 | 7803-51-2 | Hydrogen phosphide |
P060 | 465-73-6 | Isodrin |
P192 | 119-38-0 | Isolan. |
P202 | 64-00-6 | 3-Isopropylphenyl N-methylcarbamate. |
P007 | 2763-96-4 | 3(2H)-Isoxazolone, 5-(aminomethyl)- |
P196 | 15339-36-3 | Manganese, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S')-, |
P196 | 15339-36-3 | Manganese dimethyldithiocarbamate. |
P092 | 62-38-4 | Mercury, (acetato-O)phenyl- |
P065 | 628-86-4 | Mercury fulminate (R,T) |
P082 | 62-75-9 | Methanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- |
P064 | 624-83-9 | Methane, isocyanato- |
P016 | 542-88-1 | Methane, oxybis[chloro- |
P112 | 509-14-8 | Methane, tetranitro- (R) |
P118 | 75-70-7 | Methanethiol, trichloro- |
P198 | 23422-53-9 | Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N'-[3-[[(methylamino)-carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-, monohydrochloride. |
P197 | 17702-57-7 | Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N'-[2-methyl-4-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]- |
P050 | 115-29-7 | 6,9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodioxathiepin, 6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-oxide |
P059 | 76-44-8 | 4,7-Methano-lH-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro- |
P199 | 2032-65-7 | Methiocarb. |
P066 | 16752-77-5 | Methomyl |
P068 | 60-34-4 | Methyl hydrazine |
P064 | 624-83-9 | Methyl isocyanate |
P069 | 75-86-5 | 2-Methyllactonitrile |
P071 | 298-00-0 | Methyl parathion |
P190 | 1129-41-5 | Metolcarb. |
P128 | 315-8-4 | Mexacarbate. |
P072 | 86-88-4 | alpha-Naphthylthiourea |
P073 | 13463-39-3 | Nickel carbonyl |
P073 | 13463-39-3 | Nickel carbonyl Ni(C0)4, (T-4)- |
P074 | 557-19-7 | Nickel cyanide |
P074 | 557-19-7 | Nickel cyanide Ni(CN)2 |
P075 | 154-11-5 | Nicotine, & salts |
P076 | 10102-43-9 | Nitric oxide |
P077 | 100-01-6 | p-Nitroaniline |
P078 | 10102-44-0 | Nitrogen dioxide |
P076 | 10102-43-9 | Nitrogen oxide NO |
P078 | 10102-44-0 | Nitrogen oxide NO2 |
P081 | 55-63-0 | Nitroglycerine (R) |
P082 | 62-75-9 | N-Nitrosodimethylamine |
P084 | 4549-40-0 | N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine |
P085 | 152-16-9 | Octamethylpyrophosphoramide |
P087 | 20816-12-0 | Osmium oxide OSO4, (T-4)- |
P087 | 20816-12-0 | Osmium tetroxide |
P088 | 145-73-3 | 7-Oxabicyclo[2.2.l]heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid |
P194 | 23135-22-0 | Oxamyl. |
P089 | 56-38-2 | Parathion |
P034 | 131-89-5 | Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro- |
P048 | 51-28-5 | Phenol, 2,4-dinitro- |
P047 | 1534-52-1 | Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro-, & salts |
P020 | 88-85-7 | Phenol, 2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitro- |
P009 | 131-74-8 | Phenol, 2,4,6-trinitro-, ammonium salt (R) |
P128 | 315-18-4 | Phenol, 4-(dimethylamino)-3,5-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester). |
P199 | 2032-65-7 | Phenol, (3,5-dimethyl-4-(methylthio)-, methylcarbamate |
P202 | 64-00-6 | Phenol, 3-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate. |
P201 | 2631-37-0 | Phenol, 3-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate. |
P092 | 62-38-4 | Phenylmercury acetate |
P093 | 103-85-5 | Phenylthiourea |
P094 | 298-02-2 | Phorate |
P095 | 75-44-5 | Phosgene |
P096 | 7803-51-2 | Phosphine |
P041 | 311-45-5 | Phosphoric acid, diethyl 4-nitrophenyl ester |
P039 | 298-04-4 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[2-(ethylthio)ethyl] ester |
P094 | 298-02-2 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[(ethylthio)methyl] ester |
P044 | 60-51-5 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-[2-(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl] ester |
P043 | 55-91-4 | Phosphorofluoridic acid, bis(1-methylethyl) ester |
P089 | 56-38-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
P040 | 297-97-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester |
P097 | 52-85-7 | Phosphorothioic acid, O-[4-[(dimethylamino)sulfonyl]phenyl] O,O-dimethyl ester |
P071 | 298-00-0 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O,-dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
P204 | 57-47-6 | Physostigmine. |
P188 | 57-64-7 | Physostigmine salicylate. |
P110 | 78-00-2 | Plumbane, tetraethyl- |
P098 | 151-50-8 | Potassium cyanide |
P098 | 151-50-8 | Potassium cyanide K(CN) |
P099 | 506-61-6 | Potassium silver cyanide |
P201 | 2631-37-0 | Promecarb |
P070 | 116-06-3 | Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxime |
P203 | 1646-88-4 | Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methyl-sulfonyl)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime. |
P101 | 107-12-0 | Propanenitrile |
P027 | 542-76-7 | Propanenitrile, 3-chloro- |
P069 | 75-86-5 | Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-methyl- |
P081 | 55-63-0 | 1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate (R) |
P017 | 598-31-2 | 2-Propanone, 1-bromo- |
P102 | 107-19-7 | Propargyl alcohol |
P003 | 107-02-8 | 2-Propenal |
P005 | 107-18-6 | 2-Propen-1-ol |
P067 | 75-55-8 | 1,2-Propylenimine |
P102 | 107-19-7 | 2-Propyn-1-ol |
P008 | 504-24-5 | 4-Pyridinamine |
P075 | 154-11-5 | Pyridine, 3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, (S)-, & salts |
P204 | 57-47-6 | Pyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-ol, 1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester), (3aS-cis)-. |
P114 | 12039-52-0 | Selenious acid, dithallium(1 +) salt |
P103 | 630-10-4 | Selenourea |
P104 | 506-64-9 | Silver cyanide |
P104 | 506-64-9 | Silver cyanide Ag(CN) |
P105 | 26628-22-8 | Sodium azide |
P106 | 143-33-9 | Sodium cyanide |
P106 | 143-33-9 | Sodium cyanide Na(CN) |
P108 | 157-24-9 | Strychnidin-10-one, & salts |
P018 | 357-57-3 | Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxy- |
P108 | 157-24-9 | Strychnine, & salts |
P115 | 7446-18-6 | Sulfuric acid, dithallium(1 +) salt |
P109 | 3689-24-5 | Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate |
P110 | 78-00-2 | Tetraethyl lead |
P111 | 107-49-3 | Tetraethyl pyrophosphate |
P112 | 509-14-8 | Tetranitromethane (R) |
P062 | 757-58-4 | Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester |
P113 | 1314-32-5 | Thallic oxide |
P113 | 1314-32-5 | Thallium oxide Tl2 O3 |
P114 | 12039-52-0 | Thallium(I) selenite |
P115 | 7446-18-6 | Thallium(I) sulfate |
P109 | 3689-24-5 | Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester |
P045 | 39196-18-4 | Thiofanox |
P049 | 541-53-7 | Thioimidodicarbonic diamide [(H2 N)C(S)]2 NH |
P014 | 108-98-5 | Thiophenol |
P116 | 79-19-6 | Thiosemicarbazide |
P026 | 5344-82-1 | Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)- |
P072 | 86-88-4 | Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl- |
P093 | 103-85-5 | Thiourea, phenyl- |
P185 | 26419-73-8 | Tirpate. |
P123 | 8001-35-2 | Toxaphene |
P118 | 75-70-7 | Trichloromethanethiol |
P119 | 7803-55-6 | Vanadic acid, ammonium salt |
P120 | 1314-62-1 | Vanadium oxide V2 O5 |
P120 | 1314-62-1 | Vanadium pentoxide |
P084 | 4549-40-0 | Vinylamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- |
P001 | 181-81-2 | Warfarin, & salts, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% |
P205 | 137-30-4 | Zinc, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S')-, |
P121 | 557-21-1 | Zinc cyanide |
P121 | 557-21-1 | Zinc cyanide Zn(CN)2 |
P122 | 1314-84-7 | Zinc phosphide Zn3 P2, when present at concentrations greater than 10% (R,T) |
P205 | 137-30-4 | Ziram. |
P001 | 181-81-2 | 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, & salts, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% |
P001 | 181-81-2 | Warfarin, & salts, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% |
P002 | 591-08-2 | Acetamide, -(aminothioxomethyl)- |
P002 | 591-08-2 | 1-Acetyl-2-thiourea |
P003 | 107-02-8 | Acrolein |
P003 | 107-02-8 | 2-Propenal |
P004 | 309-00-2 | Aldrin |
P004 | 309-00-2 | 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexa-chloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a,-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta,5alpha,8alpha,8abeta)- |
P005 | 107-18-6 | Allyl alcohol |
P005 | 107-18-6 | 2-Propen-1-ol |
P006 | 20859-73-8 | Aluminum phosphide (R,T) |
P007 | 2763-96-4 | 5-(Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol |
P007 | 2763-96-4 | 3(2H)-Isoxazolone, 5-(aminomethyl)- |
P008 | 504-24-5 | 4-Aminopyridine |
P008 | 504-24-5 | 4-Pyridinamine |
P009 | 131-74-8 | Ammonium picrate (R) |
P009 | 131-74-8 | Phenol, 2,4,6-trinitro-, ammonium salt (R) |
P010 | 7778-39-4 | Arsenic acid H3 AsO4 |
P011 | 1303-28-2 | Arsenic oxide As2 O5 |
P011 | 1303-28-2 | Arsenic pentoxide |
P012 | 1327-53-3 | Arsenic oxide As2 O3 |
P012 | 1327-53-3 | Arsenic trioxide |
P013 | 542-62-1 | Barium cyanide |
P014 | 108-98-5 | Benzenethiol |
P014 | 108-98-5 | Thiophenol |
P015 | 7440-41-7 | Beryllium powder |
P016 | 542-88-1 | Dichloromethyl ether |
P016 | 542-88-1 | Methane, oxybis[chloro- |
P017 | 598-31-2 | Bromoacetone |
P017 | 598-31-2 | 2-Propanone, 1-bromo- |
P018 | 357-57-3 | Brucine |
P018 | 357-57-3 | Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxy- |
P020 | 88-85-7 | Dinoseb |
P020 | 88-85-7 | Phenol, 2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitro- |
P021 | 592-01-8 | Calcium cyanide |
P021 | 592-01-8 | Calcium cyanide Ca(CN)2 |
P022 | 75-15-0 | Carbon disulfide |
P023 | 107-20-0 | Acetaldehyde, chloro- |
P023 | 107-20-0 | Chloroacetaldehyde |
P024 | 106-47-8 | Benzenamine, 4-chloro- |
P024 | 106-47-8 | p-Chloroaniline |
P026 | 5344-82-1 | 1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea |
P026 | 5344-82-1 | Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)- |
P027 | 542-76-7 | 3-Chloropropionitrile |
P027 | 542-76-7 | Propanenitrile, 3-chloro- |
P028 | 100-44-7 | Benzene, (chloromethyl)- |
P028 | 100-44-7 | Benzyl chloride |
P029 | 544-92-3 | Copper cyanide |
P029 | 544-92-3 | Copper cyanide Cu(CN) |
P030 | Cyanides (soluble cyanide salts), not otherwise specified | |
P031 | 460-19-5 | Cyanogen |
P031 | 460-19-5 | Ethanedinitrile |
P033 | 506-77-4 | Cyanogen chloride |
P033 | 506-77-4 | Cyanogen chloride (CN)Cl |
P034 | 131-89-5 | 2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol |
P034 | 131-89-5 | Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro- |
P036 | 696-28-6 | Arsonous dichloride, phenyl- |
P036 | 696-28-6 | Dichlorophenylarsine |
P037 | 60-57-1 | Dieldrin |
P037 | 60-57-1 | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha,2beta,2aalpha,3beta,6beta,6aalpha,7beta, 7aalpha)- |
P038 | 692-42-2 | Arsine, diethyl- |
P038 | 692-42-2 | Diethylarsine |
P039 | 298-04-4 | Disulfoton |
P039 | 298-04-4 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[2-(ethylthio)ethyl] ester |
P040 | 297-97-2 | O,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate |
P040 | 297-97-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester |
P041 | 311-45-5 | Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate |
P041 | 311-45-5 | Phosphoric acid, diethyl 4-nitrophenyl ester |
P042 | 51-43-4 | 1,2-Benzenediol, 4-[1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl]-, (R)- |
P042 | 51-43-4 | Epinephrine |
P043 | 55-91-4 | Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP) |
P043 | 55-91-4 | Phosphorofluoridic acid, bis(1-methylethyl) ester |
P044 | 60-51-5 | Dimethoate |
P044 | 60-51-5 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-[2-(methyl amino)-2-oxoethyl] ester |
P045 | 39196-18-4 | 2-Butanone, 3,3-dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime |
P045 | 39196-18-4 | Thiofanox |
P046 | 122-09-8 | Benzeneethanamine, alpha,alpha-dimethyl- |
P046 | 122-09-8 | alpha,alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine |
P047 | 1534-52-1 | 4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol, & salts |
P047 | 1534-52-1 | Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro-, & salts |
P048 | 51-28-5 | 2,4-Dinitrophenol |
P048 | 51-28-5 | Phenol, 2,4-dinitro- |
P049 | 541-53-7 | Dithiobiuret |
P049 | 541-53-7 | Thioimidodicarbonic diamide [(H2 N)C(S)]2 NH |
P050 | 115-29-7 | Endosulfan |
P050 | 115-29-7 | 6,9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodioxathiepin, 6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-oxide |
P051 | 172-20-8 | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth [2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha,2beta,2abeta,3alpha,6alpha,6abeta,7beta, 7aalpha)-, & metabolites |
P051 | 72-20-8 | Endrin |
P051 | 72-20-8 | Endrin, & metabolites |
P054 | 151-56-4 | Aziridine |
P054 | 151-56-4 | Ethyleneimine |
P056 | 7782-41-4 | Fluorine |
P057 | 640-19-7 | Acetamide, 2-fluoro- |
P057 | 640-19-7 | Fluoroacetamide |
P058 | 62-74-8 | Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt |
P058 | 62-74-8 | Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt |
P059 | 76-44-8 | Heptachlor |
P059 | 76-44-8 | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro- |
P060 | 465-73-6 | 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexa-chloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta,5beta,8beta,8abeta)- |
P060 | 465-73-6 | Isodrin |
P062 | 757-58-4 | Hexaethyl tetraphosphate |
P062 | 757-58-4 | Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester |
P063 | 74-90-8 | Hydrocyanic acid |
P063 | 74-90-8 | Hydrogen cyanide |
P064 | 624-83-9 | Methane, isocyanato- |
P064 | 624-83-9 | Methyl isocyanate |
P065 | 628-86-4 | Fulminic acid, mercury(2 +) salt (R,T) |
P065 | 628-86-4 | Mercury fulminate (R,T) |
P066 | 16752-77-5 | Ethanimidothioic acid, N-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]-, methylester |
P066 | 16752-77-5 | Methomyl |
P067 | 75-55-8 | Aziridine, 2-methyl- |
P067 | 75-55-8 | 1,2-Propylenimine |
P068 | 60-34-4 | Hydrazine, methyl- |
P068 | 60-34-4 | Methyl hydrazine |
P069 | 75-86-5 | 2-Methyllactonitrile |
P069 | 75-86-5 | Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-methyl- |
P070 | 116-06-3 | Aldicarb |
P070 | 116-06-3 | Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxime |
P071 | 298-00-0 | Methyl parathion |
P071 | 298-00-0 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O,-dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
P072 | 86-88-4 | alpha-Naphthylthiourea |
P072 | 86-88-4 | Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl- |
P073 | 13463-39-3 | Nickel carbonyl |
P073 | 13463-39-3 | Nickel carbonyl Ni(CO)4, (T-4)- |
P074 | 557-19-7 | Nickel cyanide |
P074 | 557-19-7 | Nickel cyanide Ni(CN)2 |
P075 | 154-11-5 | Nicotine, & salts |
P075 | 154-11-5 | Pyridine, 3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, (S)-, & salts |
P076 | 10102-43-9 | Nitric oxide |
P076 | 10102-43-9 | Nitrogen oxide NO |
P077 | 100-01-6 | Benzenamine, 4-nitro- |
P077 | 100-01-6 | p-Nitroaniline |
P078 | 10102-44-0 | Nitrogen dioxide |
P078 | 10102-44-0 | Nitrogen oxide NO2 |
P081 | 55-63-0 | Nitroglycerine (R) |
P081 | 55-63-0 | 1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate (R) |
P082 | 62-75-9 | Methanamine, -methyl-N-nitroso- |
P082 | 62-75-9 | N-Nitrosodimethylamine |
P084 | 4549-40-0 | N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine |
P084 | 4549-40-0 | Vinylamine, -methyl-N-nitroso- |
P085 | 152-16-9 | Diphosphoramide, octamethyl- |
P085 | 152-16-9 | Octamethylpyrophosphoramide |
P087 | 20816-12-0 | Osmium oxide OsO4, (T-4)- |
P087 | 20816-12-0 | Osmium tetroxide |
P088 | 145-73-3 | Endothall |
P088 | 145-73-3 | 7-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid |
P089 | 56-38-2 | Parathion |
P089 | 56-38-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
P092 | 62-38-4 | Mercury, (acetato-O)phenyl- |
P092 | 62-38-4 | Phenylmercury acetate |
P093 | 103-85-5 | Phenylthiourea |
P093 | 103-85-5 | Thiourea, phenyl- |
P094 | 298-02-2 | Phorate |
P094 | 298-02-2 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[(ethylthio)methyl] ester |
P095 | 75-44-5 | Carbonic dichloride |
P095 | 75-44-5 | Phosgene |
P096 | 7803-51-2 | Hydrogen phosphide |
P096 | 7803-51-2 | Phosphine |
P097 | 52-85-7 | Famphur |
P097 | 52-85-7 | Phosphorothioic acid, O-[4-[(dimethylamino)sulfonyl]phenyl] O,O-dimethyl ester |
P098 | 151-50-8 | Potassium cyanide |
P098 | 151-50-8 | Potassium cyanide K(CN) |
P099 | 506-61-6 | Argentate(1-), bis(cyano-C)-, potassium |
P099 | 506-61-6 | Potassium silver cyanide |
P101 | 107-12-0 | Ethyl cyanide |
P101 | 107-12-0 | Propanenitrile |
P102 | 107-19-7 | Propargyl alcohol |
P102 | 107-19-7 | 2-Propyn-1-ol |
P103 | 630-10-4 | Selenourea |
P104 | 506-64-9 | Silver cyanide |
P104 | 506-64-9 | Silver cyanide Ag(CN) |
P105 | 26628-22-8 | Sodium azide |
P106 | 143-33-9 | Sodium cyanide |
P106 | 143-33-9 | Sodium cyanide Na(CN) |
P108 | 1157-24-9 | Strychnidin-10-one, & salts |
P108 | 1157-24-9 | Strychnine, & salts |
P109 | 3689-24-5 | Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate |
P109 | 3689-24-5 | Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester |
P110 | 78-00-2 | Plumbane, tetraethyl- |
P110 | 78-00-2 | Tetraethyl lead |
P111 | 107-49-3 | Diphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester |
P111 | 107-49-3 | Tetraethyl pyrophosphate |
P112 | 509-14-8 | Methane, tetranitro-(R) |
P112 | 509-14-8 | Tetranitromethane (R) |
P113 | 1314-32-5 | Thallic oxide |
P113 | 1314-32-5 | Thallium oxide Tl2 O3 |
P114 | 12039-52-0 | Selenious acid, dithallium(1 +) salt |
P114 | 12039-52-0 | Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate |
P115 | 7446-18-6 | Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester |
P115 | 7446-18-6 | Plumbane, tetraethyl- |
P116 | 79-19-6 | Tetraethyl lead |
P116 | 79-19-6 | Thiosemicarbazide |
P118 | 75-70-7 | Methanethiol, trichloro- |
P118 | 75-70-7 | Trichloromethanethiol |
P119 | 7803-55-6 | Ammonium vanadate |
P119 | 7803-55-6 | Vanadic acid, ammonium salt |
P120 | 1314-62-1 | Vanadium oxide V2O5 |
P120 | 1314-62-1 | Vanadium pentoxide |
P121 | 557-21-1 | Zinc cyanide |
P121 | 557-21-1 | Zinc cyanide Zn(CN)2 |
P122 | 1314-84-7 | Zinc phosphide Zn3 P2, when present at concentrations greater than 10% (R,T) |
P123 | 8001-35-2 | Toxaphene |
P127 | 1563-66-2 | 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate. |
P127 | 1563-66-2 | Carbofuran |
P128 | 315-8-4 | Mexacarbate |
P128 | 315-18-4 | Phenol, 4-(dimethylamino)-3,5-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester) |
P185 | 26419-73-8 | 1,3-Dithiolane-2-carboxaldehyde, 2,4-dimethyl-, O-[(methylamino)-carbonyl]oxime. |
P185 | 26419-73-8 | Tirpate |
P188 | 57-64-7 | Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, compd. with (3aS-cis)-1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethylpyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-yl methylcarbamate ester (1:1) |
P188 | 57-64-7 | Physostigmine salicylate |
P189 | 55285-14-8 | Carbamic acid, [(dibutylamino)-thio]methyl-, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-7-benzofuranyl ester |
P189 | 55285-14-8 | Carbosulfan |
P190 | 1129-41-5 | Carbamic acid, methyl-, 3-methylphenyl ester |
P190 | 1129-41-5 | Metolcarb |
P191 | 644-64-4 | Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 1-[(dimethyl-amino)carbonyl]-5-methyl-1H-pyrazol-3-yl ester |
P191 | 644-64-4 | Dimetilan |
P192 | 119-38-0 | Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 3-methyl-1-(1-methylethyl)-1H-pyrazol-5-yl ester |
P192 | 119-38-0 | Isolan |
P194 | 23135-22-0 | Ethanimidthioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-[[(methylamino) carbonyl]oxy]-2-oxo-, methyl ester |
P194 | 23135-22-0 | Oxamyl |
P196 | 15339-36-3 | Manganese, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S')-, |
P196 | 15339-36-3 | Manganese dimethyldithiocarbamate |
P197 | 17702-57-7 | Formparanate |
P197 | 17702-57-7 | Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N'-[2-methyl-4-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]- |
P198 | 23422-53-9 | Formetanate hydrochloride |
P198 | 23422-53-9 | Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N'-[3-[[(methylamino)-carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-monohydrochloride |
P199 | 2032-65-7 | Methiocarb |
P199 | 2032-65-7 | Phenol, (3,5-dimethyl-4-(methylthio)-, methylcarbamate |
P201 | 2631-37-0 | Phenol, 3-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate |
P201 | 2631-37-0 | Promecarb |
P202 | 64-00-6 | m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate |
P202 | 64-00-6 | 3-Isopropylphenyl N-methylcarbamate |
P202 | 64-00-6 | Phenol, 3-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate |
P203 | 1646-88-4 | Aldicarb sulfone |
P203 | 1646-88-4 | Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methyl-sulfonyl)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime |
P204 | 57-47-6 | Physostigmine |
P204 | 57-47-6 | Pyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-ol, 1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester), (3aS-cis)- |
P205 | 137-30-4 | Zinc, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S')-, |
P205 | 137-30-4 | Ziram |
\1\ CAS Number given for parent compound only.
Comment: For the convenience of the regulated community, the primary hazardous properties of these materials have been indicated by the letters T (Toxicity), R (Reactivity), I (Ignitability) and C (Corrosivity). Absence of a letter indicates that the compound is only listed for toxicity. Wastes are first listed in alphabetical order by substance and then listed again in numerical order by Hazardous Waste Number.
Hazardous waste No. | Chemical abstracts No. | Substance |
U394 | 30558-43-1 | A2213. |
U001 | 75-07-0 | Acetaldehyde (I) |
U034 | 75-87-6 | Acetaldehyde, trichloro- |
U187 | 62-44-2 | Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)- |
U005 | 53-96-3 | Acetamide, N-9H-fluoren-2-yl- |
U240 | 194-75-7 | Acetic acid, (2,4-dichlorophenoxy)-, salts & esters |
U112 | 141-78-6 | Acetic acid ethyl ester (I) |
U144 | 301-04-2 | Acetic acid, lead(2 +) salt |
U214 | 563-68-8 | Acetic acid, thallium(1 +) salt |
see F027 | 93-76-5 | Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- |
U002 | 67-64-1 | Acetone (I) |
U003 | 75-05-8 | Acetonitrile (I,T) |
U004 | 98-86-2 | Acetophenone |
U005 | 53-96-3 | 2-Acetylaminofluorene |
U006 | 75-36-5 | Acetyl chloride (C,R,T) |
U007 | 79-06-1 | Acrylamide |
U008 | 79-10-7 | Acrylic acid (I) |
U009 | 107-13-1 | Acrylonitrile |
U011 | 61-82-5 | Amitrole |
U012 | 62-53-3 | Aniline (I,T) |
U136 | 75-60-5 | Arsinic acid, dimethyl- |
U014 | 492-80-8 | Auramine |
U015 | 115-02-6 | Azaserine |
U010 | 50-07-7 | Azirino[2',3':3,4]pyrrolo[1,2-a]indole-4,7-dione, 6-amino-8-[[(aminocarbonyl)oxy]methyl]-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-methoxy-5-methyl-, [1aS-(1aalpha, 8beta,8aalpha,8balpha)]- |
U280 | 101-27-9 | Barban. |
U278 | 22781-23-3 | Bendiocarb. |
U364 | 22961-82-6 | Bendiocarb phenol. |
U271 | 17804-35-2 | Benomyl. |
U157 | 56-49-5 | Benz[j]aceanthrylene, 1,2-dihydro-3-methyl- |
U016 | 225-51-4 | Benz[c]acridine |
U017 | 98-87-3 | Benzal chloride |
U192 | 23950-58-5 | Benzamide, 3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl)- |
U018 | 56-55-3 | Benz[a]anthracene |
U094 | 57-97-6 | Benz[a]anthracene, 7,12-dimethyl- |
U012 | 62-53-3 | Benzenamine (I,T) |
U014 | 492-80-8 | Benzenamine, 4,4'-carbonimidoylbis[N,N-dimethyl- |
U049 | 3165-93-3 | Benzenamine, 4-chloro-2-methyl-, hydrochloride |
U093 | 60-11-7 | Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)- |
U328 | 95-53-4 | Benzenamine, 2-methyl- |
U353 | 106-49-0 | Benzenamine, 4-methyl- |
U158 | 101-14-4 | Benzenamine, 4,4'-methylenebis[2-chloro- |
U222 | 636-21-5 | Benzenamine, 2-methyl-, hydrochloride |
U181 | 99-55-8 | Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro- |
U019 | 71-43-2 | Benzene (I,T) |
U038 | 510-15-6 | Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-alpha-(4-chlorophenyl)-alpha-hydroxy-, ethyl ester |
U030 | 101-55-3 | Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy- |
U035 | 305-03-3 | Benzenebutanoic acid, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]- |
U037 | 108-90-7 | Benzene, chloro- |
U221 | 25376-45-8 | Benzenediamine, ar-methyl- |
U028 | 117-81-7 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester |
U069 | 84-74-2 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester |
U088 | 84-66-2 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester |
U102 | 131-11-3 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester |
U107 | 117-84-0 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dioctyl ester |
U070 | 95-50-1 | Benzene, 1,2-dichloro- |
U071 | 541-73-1 | Benzene, 1,3-dichloro- |
U072 | 106-46-7 | Benzene, 1,4-dichloro- |
U060 | 72-54-8 | Benzene, 1,1 '-(2,2-dichloroethylidene)bis[4-chloro- |
U017 | 98-87-3 | Benzene, (dichloromethyl)- |
U223 | 26471-62-5 | Benzene, 1,3-diisocyanatomethyl- (R,T) |
U239 | 1330-20-7 | Benzene, dimethyl- (I) |
U201 | 108-46-3 | 1,3-Benzenediol |
U127 | 118-74-1 | Benzene, hexachloro- |
U056 | 110-82-7 | Benzene, hexahydro- (I) |
U220 | 108-88-3 | Benzene, methyl- |
U105 | 121-14-2 | Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro- |
U106 | 606-20-2 | Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro- |
U055 | 98-82-8 | Benzene, (1-methylethyl)- (I) |
U169 | 98-95-3 | Benzene, nitro- |
U183 | 608-93-5 | Benzene, pentachloro- |
U185 | 82-68-8 | Benzene, pentachloronitro- |
U020 | 98-09-9 | Benzenesulfonic acid chloride (C,R) |
U020 | 98-09-9 | Benzenesulfonyl chloride (C,R) |
U207 | 95-94-3 | Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro- |
U061 | 50-29-3 | Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis[4-chloro- |
U247 | 72-43-5 | Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis[4- methoxy- |
U023 | 98-07-7 | Benzene, (trichloromethyl)- |
U234 | 99-35-4 | Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro- |
U021 | 92-87-5 | Benzidine |
U278 | 22781-23-3 | 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-, methyl carbamate. |
U364 | 22961-82-6 | 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-, |
U203 | 94-59-7 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(2-propenyl)- |
U141 | 120-58-1 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-propenyl)- |
U367 | 1563-38-8 | 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl- |
U090 | 94-58-6 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-propyl- |
U064 | 189-55-9 | Benzo[rst]pentaphene |
U248 | 181-81-2 | 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenyl-butyl)-, & salts, when present at concentrations of 0.3% or less |
U022 | 50-32-8 | Benzo[a]pyrene |
U197 | 106-51-4 | p-Benzoquinone |
U023 | 98-07-7 | Benzotrichloride (C,R,T) |
U085 | 1464-53-5 | 2,2'-Bioxirane |
U021 | 92-87-5 | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine |
U073 | 91-94-1 | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dichloro- |
U091 | 119-90-4 | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethoxy- |
U095 | 119-93-7 | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethyl- |
U225 | 75-25-2 | Bromoform |
U030 | 101-55-3 | 4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether |
U128 | 87-68-3 | 1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro- |
U172 | 924-16-3 | 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso- |
U031 | 71-36-3 | 1-Butanol (I) |
U159 | 78-93-3 | 2-Butanone (I,T) |
U160 | 1338-23-4 | 2-Butanone, peroxide (R,T) |
U053 | 4170-30-3 | 2-Butenal |
U074 | 764-41-0 | 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro- (I,T) |
U143 | 303-34-4 | 2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 7-[[2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy]methyl]-2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-1H-pyrrolizin-1-yl ester, [1S-[1alpha(Z),7(2S*,3R*),7aalpha]]- |
U031 | 71-36-3 | n-Butyl alcohol (I) |
U136 | 75-60-5 | Cacodylic acid |
U032 | 13765-19-0 | Calcium chromate |
U372 | 10605-21-7 | Carbamic acid, 1H-benzimidazol-2-yl, methyl ester. |
U271 | 17804-35-2 | Carbamic acid, [1-[(butylamino)carbonyl]-1H-benzimidazol-2-yl]-, methyl ester. |
U280 | 101-27-9 | Carbamic acid, (3-chlorophenyl)-, 4-chloro-2-butynyl ester. |
U238 | 51-79-6 | Carbamic acid, ethyl ester |
U178 | 615-53-2 | Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester |
U373 | 122-42-9 | Carbamic acid, phenyl-, 1-methylethyl ester. |
U409 | 23564-05-8 | Carbamic acid, [1,2-phenylenebis (iminocarbonothioyl)]bis-, dimethyl ester. |
U097 | 79-44-7 | Carbamic chloride, dimethyl- |
U389 | 2303-17-5 | Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3,3-trichloro-2-propenyl) ester. |
U387 | 52888-80-9 | Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-, S-(phenylmethyl) ester. |
U114 | 1111-54-6 | Carbamodithioic acid, 1,2-ethanediylbis-, salts & esters |
U062 | 2303-16-4 | Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3-dichloro-2-propenyl) ester |
U279 | 63-25-2 | Carbaryl. |
U372 | 10605-21-7 | Carbendazim. |
U367 | 1563-38-8 | Carbofuran phenol. |
U215 | 6533-73-9 | Carbonic acid, dithallium(1 +) salt |
U033 | 353-50-4 | Carbonic difluoride |
U156 | 79-22-1 | Carbonochloridic acid, methyl ester (I,T) |
U033 | 353-50-4 | Carbon oxyfluoride (R,T) |
U211 | 56-23-5 | Carbon tetrachloride |
U034 | 75-87-6 | Chloral |
U035 | 305-03-3 | Chlorambucil |
U036 | 57-74-9 | Chlordane, alpha & gamma isomers |
U026 | 494-03-1 | Chlornaphazin |
U037 | 108-90-7 | Chlorobenzene |
U038 | 510-15-6 | Chlorobenzilate |
U039 | 59-50-7 | p-Chloro-m-cresol |
U042 | 110-75-8 | 2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether |
U044 | 67-66-3 | Chloroform |
U046 | 107-30-2 | Chloromethyl methyl ether |
U047 | 91-58-7 | beta-Chloronaphthalene |
U048 | 95-57-8 | o-Chlorophenol |
U049 | 3165-93-3 | 4-Chloro-o-toluidine, hydrochloride |
U032 | 13765-19-0 | Chromic acid H2 CrO4, calcium salt |
U050 | 218-01-9 | Chrysene |
U051 | Creosote | |
U052 | 1319-77-3 | Cresol (Cresylic acid) |
U053 | 4170-30-3 | Crotonaldehyde |
U055 | 98-82-8 | Cumene (I) |
U246 | 506-68-3 | Cyanogen bromide (CN)Br |
U197 | 106-51-4 | 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione |
U056 | 110-82-7 | Cyclohexane (I) |
U129 | 58-89-9 | Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-, (1alpha,2alpha,3beta,4alpha,5alpha,6beta)- |
U057 | 108-94-1 | Cyclohexanone (I) |
U130 | 77-47-4 | 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro- |
U058 | 50-18-0 | Cyclophosphamide |
U240 | 194-75-7 | 2,4-D, salts & esters |
U059 | 20830-81-3 | Daunomycin |
U060 | 72-54-8 | DDD |
U061 | 50-29-3 | DDT |
U062 | 2303-16-4 | Diallate |
U063 | 53-70-3 | Dibenz[a,h]anthracene |
U064 | 189-55-9 | Dibenzo[a,i]pyrene |
U066 | 96-12-8 | 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane |
U069 | 84-74-2 | Dibutyl phthalate |
U070 | 95-50-1 | o-Dichlorobenzene |
U071 | 541-73-1 | m-Dichlorobenzene |
U072 | 106-46-7 | p-Dichlorobenzene |
U073 | 91-94-1 | 3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine |
U074 | 764-41-0 | 1,4-Dichloro-2-butene (I,T) |
U075 | 75-71-8 | Dichlorodifluoromethane |
U078 | 75-35-4 | 1,1-Dichloroethylene |
U079 | 156-60-5 | 1,2-Dichloroethylene |
U025 | 111-44-4 | Dichloroethyl ether |
U027 | 108-60-1 | Dichloroisopropyl ether |
U024 | 111-91-1 | Dichloromethoxy ethane |
U081 | 120-83-2 | 2,4-Dichlorophenol |
U082 | 87-65-0 | 2,6-Dichlorophenol |
U084 | 542-75-6 | 1,3-Dichloropropene |
U085 | 1464-53-5 | 1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane (I,T) |
U108 | 123-91-1 | 1,4-Diethyleneoxide |
U028 | 117-81-7 | Diethylhexyl phthalate |
U395 | 5952-26-1 | Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate. |
U086 | 1615-80-1 | N,N'-Diethylhydrazine |
U087 | 3288-58-2 | O,O-Diethyl S-methyl dithiophosphate |
U088 | 84-66-2 | Diethyl phthalate |
U089 | 56-53-1 | Diethylstilbesterol |
U090 | 94-58-6 | Dihydrosafrole |
U091 | 119-90-4 | 3,3'-Dimethoxybenzidine |
U092 | 124-40-3 | Dimethylamine (I) |
U093 | 60-11-7 | p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene |
U094 | 57-97-6 | 7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]anthracene |
U095 | 119-93-7 | 3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine |
U096 | 80-15-9 | alpha,alpha-Dimethylbenzylhydroperoxide (R) |
U097 | 79-44-7 | Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride |
U098 | 57-14-7 | 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine |
U099 | 540-73-8 | 1,2-Dimethylhydrazine |
U101 | 105-67-9 | 2,4-Dimethylphenol |
U102 | 131-11-3 | Dimethyl phthalate |
U103 | 77-78-1 | Dimethyl sulfate |
U105 | 121-14-2 | 2,4-Dinitrotoluene |
U106 | 606-20-2 | 2,6-Dinitrotoluene |
U107 | 117-84-0 | Di-n-octyl phthalate |
U108 | 123-91-1 | 1,4-Dioxane |
U109 | 122-66-7 | 1,2-Diphenylhydrazine |
U110 | 142-84-7 | Dipropylamine (I) |
U111 | 621-64-7 | Di-n-propylnitrosamine |
U041 | 106-89-8 | Epichlorohydrin |
U001 | 75-07-0 | Ethanal (I) |
U404 | 121-44-8 | Ethanamine, N,N-diethyl- |
U174 | 55-18-5 | Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso- |
U155 | 91-80-5 | 1,2-Ethanediamine, N,N-dimethyl-N'-2-pyridinyl-N'-(2-thienylmethyl)- |
U067 | 106-93-4 | Ethane, 1,2-dibromo- |
U076 | 75-34-3 | Ethane, 1,1-dichloro- |
U077 | 107-06-2 | Ethane, 1,2-dichloro- |
U131 | 67-72-1 | Ethane, hexachloro- |
U024 | 111-91-1 | Ethane, 1,1 '-[methylenebis(oxy)]bis[2-chloro- |
U117 | 60-29-7 | Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis-(I) |
U025 | 111-44-4 | Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis[2-chloro- |
U184 | 76-01-7 | Ethane, pentachloro- |
U208 | 630-20-6 | Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro- |
U209 | 79-34-5 | Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro- |
U218 | 62-55-5 | Ethanethioamide |
U226 | 71-55-6 | Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro- |
U227 | 79-00-5 | Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro- |
U410 | 59669-26-0 | Ethanimidothioic acid, N,N'-[thiobis[(methylimino)carbonyloxy]]bis-, dimethyl ester |
U394 | 30558-43-1 | Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-hydroxy-2-oxo-, methyl ester. |
U359 | 110-80-5 | Ethanol, 2-ethoxy- |
U173 | 1116-54-7 | Ethanol, 2,2'-(nitrosoimino)bis- |
U395 | 5952-26-1 | Ethanol, 2,2'-oxybis-, dicarbamate. |
U004 | 98-86-2 | Ethanone, 1-phenyl- |
U043 | 75-01-4 | Ethene, chloro- |
U042 | 110-75-8 | Ethene, (2-chloroethoxy)- |
U078 | 75-35-4 | Ethene, 1,1-dichloro- |
U079 | 156-60-5 | Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-, (E)- |
U210 | 127-18-4 | Ethene, tetrachloro- |
U228 | 79-01-6 | Ethene, trichloro- |
U112 | 141-78-6 | Ethyl acetate (I) |
U113 | 140-88-5 | Ethyl acrylate (I) |
U238 | 51-79-6 | Ethyl carbamate (urethane) |
U117 | 60-29-7 | Ethyl ether (I) |
U114 | 1111-54-6 | Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid, salts & esters |
U067 | 106-93-4 | Ethylene dibromide |
U077 | 107-06-2 | Ethylene dichloride |
U359 | 110-80-5 | Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether |
U115 | 75-21-8 | Ethylene oxide (I,T) |
U116 | 96-45-7 | Ethylenethiourea |
U076 | 75-34-3 | Ethylidene dichloride |
U118 | 97-63-2 | Ethyl methacrylate |
U119 | 62-50-0 | Ethyl methanesulfonate |
U120 | 206-44-0 | Fluoranthene |
U122 | 50-00-0 | Formaldehyde |
U123 | 64-18-6 | Formic acid (C,T) |
U124 | 110-00-9 | Furan (I) |
U125 | 98-01-1 | 2-Furancarboxaldehyde (I) |
U147 | 108-31-6 | 2,5-Furandione |
U213 | 109-99-9 | Furan, tetrahydro-(I) |
U125 | 98-01-1 | Furfural (I) |
U124 | 110-00-9 | Furfuran (I) |
U206 | 18883-66-4 | Glucopyranose, 2-deoxy-2-(3-methyl-3-nitrosoureido)-, D- |
U206 | 18883-66-4 | D-Glucose, 2-deoxy-2-[[(methylnitrosoamino)-carbonyl]amino]- |
U126 | 765-34-4 | Glycidylaldehyde |
U163 | 70-25-7 | Guanidine, N-methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitroso- |
U127 | 118-74-1 | Hexachlorobenzene |
U128 | 87-68-3 | Hexachlorobutadiene |
U130 | 77-47-4 | Hexachlorocyclopentadiene |
U131 | 67-72-1 | Hexachloroethane |
U132 | 70-30-4 | Hexachlorophene |
U243 | 1888-71-7 | Hexachloropropene |
U133 | 302-01-2 | Hydrazine (R,T) |
U086 | 1615-80-1 | Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl- |
U098 | 57-14-7 | Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl- |
U099 | 540-73-8 | Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl- |
U109 | 122-66-7 | Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl- |
U134 | 7664-39-3 | Hydrofluoric acid (C,T) |
U134 | 7664-39-3 | Hydrogen fluoride (C,T) |
U135 | 7783-06-4 | Hydrogen sulfide |
U135 | 7783-06-4 | Hydrogen sulfide H2 S |
U096 | 80-15-9 | Hydroperoxide, 1-methyl-1-phenylethyl- (R) |
U116 | 96-45-7 | 2-Imidazolidinethione |
U137 | 193-39-5 | Indeno[1,2,3-cd]pyrene |
U190 | 85-44-9 | 1,3-Isobenzofurandione |
U140 | 78-83-1 | Isobutyl alcohol (I,T) |
U141 | 120-58-1 | Isosafrole |
U142 | 143-50-0 | Kepone |
U143 | 303-34-4 | Lasiocarpine |
U144 | 301-04-2 | Lead acetate |
U146 | 1335-32-6 | Lead, bis(acetato-O)tetrahydroxytri- |
U145 | 7446-27-7 | Lead phosphate |
U146 | 1335-32-6 | Lead subacetate |
U129 | 58-89-9 | Lindane |
U163 | 70-25-7 | MNNG |
U147 | 108-31-6 | Maleic anhydride |
U148 | 123-33-1 | Maleic hydrazide |
U149 | 109-77-3 | Malononitrile |
U150 | 148-82-3 | Melphalan |
U151 | 7439-97-6 | Mercury |
U152 | 126-98-7 | Methacrylonitrile (I, T) |
U092 | 124-40-3 | Methanamine, N-methyl- (I) |
U029 | 74-83-9 | Methane, bromo- |
U045 | 74-87-3 | Methane, chloro- (I, T) |
U046 | 107-30-2 | Methane, chloromethoxy- |
U068 | 74-95-3 | Methane, dibromo- |
U080 | 75-09-2 | Methane, dichloro- |
U075 | 75-71-8 | Methane, dichlorodifluoro- |
U138 | 74-88-4 | Methane, iodo- |
U119 | 62-50-0 | Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester |
U211 | 56-23-5 | Methane, tetrachloro- |
U153 | 74-93-1 | Methanethiol (I, T) |
U225 | 75-25-2 | Methane, tribromo- |
U044 | 67-66-3 | Methane, trichloro- |
U121 | 75-69-4 | Methane, trichlorofluoro- |
U036 | 57-74-9 | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octachloro-2,3,3a,4,7,7a-hexahydro- |
U154 | 67-56-1 | Methanol (I) |
U155 | 91-80-5 | Methapyrilene |
U142 | 143-50-0 | 1,3,4-Metheno-2H-cyclobuta[cd]pentalen-2-one, 1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-decachlorooctahydro- |
U247 | 72-43-5 | Methoxychlor |
U154 | 67-56-1 | Methyl alcohol (I) |
U029 | 74-83-9 | Methyl bromide |
U186 | 504-60-9 | 1-Methylbutadiene (I) |
U045 | 74-87-3 | Methyl chloride (I,T) |
U156 | 79-22-1 | Methyl chlorocarbonate (I,T) |
U226 | 71-55-6 | Methyl chloroform |
U157 | 56-49-5 | 3-Methylcholanthrene |
U158 | 101-14-4 | 4,4'-Methylenebis(2-chloroaniline) |
U068 | 74-95-3 | Methylene bromide |
U080 | 75-09-2 | Methylene chloride |
U159 | 78-93-3 | Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) (I,T) |
U160 | 1338-23-4 | Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide (R,T) |
U138 | 74-88-4 | Methyl iodide |
U161 | 108-10-1 | Methyl isobutyl ketone (I) |
U162 | 80-62-6 | Methyl methacrylate (I,T) |
U161 | 108-10-1 | 4-Methyl-2-pentanone (I) |
U164 | 56-04-2 | Methylthiouracil |
U010 | 50-07-7 | Mitomycin C |
U059 | 20830-81-3 | 5,12-Naphthacenedione, 8-acetyl-10-[(3-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy)-alpha-L-lyxo-hexopyranosyl)oxy]-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy-, (8S-cis)- |
U167 | 134-32-7 | 1-Naphthalenamine |
U168 | 91-59-8 | 2-Naphthalenamine |
U026 | 494-03-1 | Naphthalenamine, N,N'-bis(2-chloroethyl)- |
U165 | 91-20-3 | Naphthalene |
U047 | 91-58-7 | Naphthalene, 2-chloro- |
U166 | 130-15-4 | 1,4-Naphthalenedione |
U236 | 72-57-1 | 2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic acid, 3,3'-[(3,3'- dimethyl[1,1 '-biphenyl]-4,4'-diyl)bis(azo)bis[5-amino-4-hydroxy]-, tetrasodium salt |
U279 | 63-25-2 | 1-Naphthalenol, methylcarbamate. |
U166 | 130-15-4 | 1,4-Naphthoquinone |
U167 | 134-32-7 | alpha-Naphthylamine |
U168 | 91-59-8 | beta-Naphthylamine |
U217 | 10102-45-1 | Nitric acid, thallium(1 +) salt |
U169 | 98-95-3 | Nitrobenzene (I,T) |
U170 | 100-02-7 | p-Nitrophenol |
U171 | 79-46-9 | 2-Nitropropane (I,T) |
U172 | 924-16-3 | N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine |
U173 | 1116-54-7 | N-Nitrosodiethanolamine |
U174 | 55-18-5 | N-Nitrosodiethylamine |
U176 | 759-73-9 | N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea |
U177 | 684-93-5 | N-Nitroso-N-methylurea |
U178 | 615-53-2 | N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane |
U179 | 100-75-4 | N-Nitrosopiperidine |
U180 | 930-55-2 | N-Nitrosopyrrolidine |
U181 | 99-55-8 | 5-Nitro-o-toluidine |
U193 | 1120-71-4 | 1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide |
U058 | 50-18-0 | 2H-1,3,2-Oxazaphosphorin-2-amine, N,N-bis(2-chloroethyl)tetrahydro-, 2-oxide |
U115 | 75-21-8 | Oxirane (I,T) |
U126 | 765-34-4 | Oxiranecarboxyaldehyde |
U041 | 106-89-8 | Oxirane, (chloromethyl)- |
U182 | 123-63-7 | Paraldehyde |
U183 | 608-93-5 | Pentachlorobenzene |
U184 | 76-01-7 | Pentachloroethane |
U185 | 82-68-8 | Pentachloronitrobenzene (PCNB) |
See F027 | 87-86-5 | Pentachlorophenol |
U161 | 108-10-1 | Pentanol, 4-methyl- |
U186 | 504-60-9 | 1,3-Pentadiene (I) |
U187 | 62-44-2 | Phenacetin |
U188 | 108-95-2 | Phenol |
U048 | 95-57-8 | Phenol, 2-chloro- |
U039 | 59-50-7 | Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl- |
U081 | 120-83-2 | Phenol, 2,4-dichloro- |
U082 | 87-65-0 | Phenol, 2,6-dichloro- |
U089 | 56-53-1 | Phenol, 4,4'-(1,2-diethyl-1,2-ethenediyl)bis-, (E)- |
U101 | 105-67-9 | Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl- |
U052 | 1319-77-3 | Phenol, methyl- |
U132 | 70-30-4 | Phenol, 2,2'-methylenebis[3,4,6-trichloro- |
U411 | 114-26-1 | Phenol, 2-(1-methylethoxy)-, methylcarbamate. |
U170 | 100-02-7 | Phenol, 4-nitro- |
See F027 | 87-86-5 | Phenol, pentachloro- |
See F027 | 58-90-2 | Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro- |
See F027 | 95-95-4 | Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro- |
See F027 | 88-06-2 | Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro- |
U150 | 148-82-3 | L-Phenylalanine, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]- |
U145 | 7446-27-7 | Phosphoric acid, lead(2 +) salt (2:3) |
U087 | 3288-58-2 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-methyl ester |
U189 | 1314-80-3 | Phosphorus sulfide (R) |
U190 | 85-44-9 | Phthalic anhydride |
U191 | 109-06-8 | 2-Picoline |
U179 | 100-75-4 | Piperidine, 1-nitroso- |
U192 | 23950-58-5 | Pronamide |
U194 | 107-10-8 | 1-Propanamine (I,T) |
U111 | 621-64-7 | 1-Propanamine, N-nitroso-N-propyl- |
U110 | 142-84-7 | 1-Propanamine, N-propyl- (I) |
U066 | 96-12-8 | Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro- |
U083 | 78-87-5 | Propane, 1,2-dichloro- |
U149 | 109-77-3 | Propanedinitrile |
U171 | 79-46-9 | Propane, 2-nitro- (I,T) |
U027 | 108-60-1 | Propane, 2,2'-oxybis[2-chloro- |
U193 | 1120-71-4 | 1,3-Propane sultone |
See F027 | 93-72-1 | Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- |
U235 | 126-72-7 | 1-Propanol, 2,3-dibromo-, phosphate (3:1) |
U140 | 78-83-1 | 1-Propanol, 2-methyl- (I,T) |
U002 | 67-64-1 | 2-Propanone (I) |
U007 | 79-06-1 | 2-Propenamide |
U084 | 542-75-6 | 1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro- |
U243 | 1888-71-7 | 1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-hexachloro- |
U009 | 107-13-1 | 2-Propenenitrile |
U152 | 126-98-7 | 2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl- (I,T) |
U008 | 79-10-7 | 2-Propenoic acid (I) |
U113 | 140-88-5 | 2-Propenoic acid, ethyl ester (I) |
U118 | 97-63-2 | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester |
U162 | 80-62-6 | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester (I,T) |
U373 | 122-42-9 | Propham. |
U411 | 114-26-1 | Propoxur. |
U387 | 52888-80-9 | Prosulfocarb. |
U194 | 107-10-8 | n-Propylamine (I,T) |
U083 | 78-87-5 | Propylene dichloride |
U148 | 123-33-1 | 3,6-Pyridazinedione, 1,2-dihydro- |
U196 | 110-86-1 | Pyridine |
U191 | 109-06-8 | Pyridine, 2-methyl- |
U237 | 66-75-1 | 2,4-(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione, 5-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]- |
U164 | 56-04-2 | 4(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxo- |
U180 | 930-55-2 | Pyrrolidine, 1-nitroso- |
U200 | 50-55-5 | Reserpine |
U201 | 108-46-3 | Resorcinol |
U203 | 94-59-7 | Safrole |
U204 | 7783-00-8 | Selenious acid |
U204 | 7783-00-8 | Selenium dioxide |
U205 | 7488-56-4 | Selenium sulfide |
U205 | 7488-56-4 | Selenium sulfide SeS2 (R,T) |
U015 | 115-02-6 | L-Serine, diazoacetate (ester) |
See F027 | 93-72-1 | Silvex (2,4,5-TP) |
U206 | 18883-66-4 | Streptozotocin |
U103 | 77-78-1 | Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester |
U189 | 1314-80-3 | Sulfur phosphide (R) |
See F027 | 93-76-5 | 2,4,5-T |
U207 | 95-94-3 | 1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene |
U208 | 630-20-6 | 1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane |
U209 | 79-34-5 | 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane |
U210 | 127-18-4 | Tetrachloroethylene |
See F027 | 58-90-2 | 2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol |
U213 | 109-99-9 | Tetrahydrofuran (I) |
U214 | 563-68-8 | Thallium(I) acetate |
U215 | 6533-73-9 | Thallium(I) carbonate |
U216 | 7791-12-0 | Thallium(I) chloride |
U216 | 7791-12-0 | thallium chloride TlCl |
U217 | 10102-45-1 | Thallium(I) nitrate |
U218 | 62-55-5 | Thioacetamide |
U410 | 59669-26-0 | Thiodicarb. |
U153 | 74-93-1 | Thiomethanol (I,T) |
U244 | 137-26-8 | Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide [(H2 N)C(S)]2 S2, tetramethyl- |
U409 | 23564-05-8 | Thiophanate-methyl. |
U219 | 62-56-6 | Thiourea |
U244 | 137-26-8 | Thiram |
U220 | 108-88-3 | Toluene |
U221 | 25376-45-8 | Toluenediamine |
U223 | 26471-62-5 | Toluene diisocyanate (R,T) |
U328 | 95-53-4 | o-Toluidine |
U353 | 106-49-0 | p-Toluidine |
U222 | 636-21-5 | o-Toluidine hydrochloride |
U389 | 2303-17-5 | Triallate. |
U011 | 61-82-5 | 1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine |
U226 | 71-55-6 | 1,1,1-Trichloroethane |
U227 | 79-00-5 | 1,1,2-Trichloroethane |
U228 | 79-01-6 | Trichloroethylene |
U121 | 75-69-4 | Trichloromonofluoromethane |
See F027 | 95-95-4 | 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol |
See F027 | 88-06-2 | 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol |
U404 | 121-44-8 | Triethylamine. |
U234 | 99-35-4 | 1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene (R,T) |
U182 | 123-63-7 | 1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl- |
U235 | 126-72-7 | Tris(2,3-dibromopropyl) phosphate |
U236 | 72-57-1 | Trypan blue |
U237 | 66-75-1 | Uracil mustard |
U176 | 759-73-9 | Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitroso- |
U177 | 684-93-5 | Urea, N-methyl-N-nitroso- |
U043 | 75-01-4 | Vinyl chloride |
U248 | 181-81-2 | Warfarin, & salts, when present at concentrations of 0.3% or less |
U239 | 1330-20-7 | Xylene (I) |
U200 | 50-55-5 | Yohimban-16-carboxylic acid, 11,17-dimethoxy-18-[(3,4,5-trimethoxybenzoyl)oxy]-, methyl ester, (3beta,16beta,17alpha,18beta,20alpha)- |
U249 | 1314-84-7 | Zinc phosphide Zn3 P2, when present at concentrations of 10% or less |
UOOl | 75-07-0 | Acetaldehyde (I) |
UOOl | 75-07-0 | Ethanal (I) |
U002 | 67-64-1 | Acetone (I) |
U002 | 67-64-1 | 2-Propanone (I) |
U003 | 75-05-8 | Acetonitrile (I,T) |
U004 | 98-86-2 | Acetophenone |
U004 | 98-86-2 | Ethanone, 1-phenyl- |
U005 | 53-96-3 | Acetamide, -9H-fluoren-2-yl- |
U005 | 53-96-3 | 2-Acetylaminofluorene |
U006 | 75-36-5 | Acetyl chloride (C,R,T) |
U007 | 79-06-1 | Acryl amide |
U007 | 79-06-1 | 2-Propenamide |
U008 | 79-10-7 | Acrylic acid (I) |
U008 | 79-10-7 | 2-Propenoic acid (I) |
U009 | 107-13-1 | Acrylonitrile |
U009 | 107-13-1 | 2-Propenenitrile |
U010 | 50-07-7 | Azirino[2',3':3,4]pyrrolo[l,2-a]indole-4,7-dione, 6-amino-8-[[(aminocarbonyl)oxy]methyl]-l,la,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-methoxy-5-methyl-, [laS-(laalpha, 8beta,8aalpha,8balpha)]- |
U010 | 50-07-7 | Mitomycin C |
U011 | 61-82-5 | Amitrole |
U011 | 61-82-5 | IH-1,2,4-Triazol-3 -amine |
U012 | 62-53-3 | Aniline (I,T) |
U012 | 62-53-3 | Benzenamine (I,T) |
U014 | 492-80-8 | Auramine |
U014 | 492-80-8 | Benzenamine, 4,4'-carbonimidoylbis[N,N-dimethyl- |
U015 | 115-02-6 | Azaserine |
U015 | 115-02-6 | L-Serine, diazoacetate (ester) |
U016 | 225-51-4 | Benz[c]acridine |
U017 | 98-87-3 | Benzal chloride |
U017 | 98-87-3 | Benzene, (dichloromethyl)- |
U018 | 56-55-3 | Benz[a]anthracene |
U019 | 71-43-2 | Benzene (I,T) |
U020 | 98-09-9 | Benzenesulfonic acid chloride (C,R) |
U020 | 98-09-9 | Benzenesulfonyl chloride (C,R) |
U021 | 92-87-5 | Benzidine |
U021 | 92-87-5 | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine |
U022 | 50-32-8 | Benzo[a]pyrene |
U023 | 98-07-7 | Benzene, (trichloromethyl)- |
U023 | 98-07-7 | Benzotrichloride (C,R,T) |
U024 | 111-91-1 | Dichloromethoxy ethane |
U024 | 111-91-1 | Ethane, 1,1 '-[methylenebis(oxy)]bis[2-chloro- |
U025 | 111-44-4 | Dichloroethyl ether |
U025 | 111-44-4 | Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis[2-chloro- |
U026 | 494-03-1 | Chlornaphazin |
U026 | 494-03-1 | Naphthalenamine, N,N'-bis(2-chloroethyl)- |
U027 | 108-60-1 | Dichloroisopropyl ether |
U027 | 108-60-1 | Propane, 2,2'-oxybis[2-chloro- |
U028 | 117-81-7 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester |
U028 | 117-81-7 | Diethylhexyl phthalate |
U029 | 74-83-9 | Methane, bromo- |
U029 | 74-83-9 | Methyl bromide |
U030 | 101-55-3 | Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy- |
U030 | 101-55-3 | 4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether |
U031 | 71-36-3 | 1-Butanol (I) |
U031 | 71-36-3 | n-Butyl alcohol (I) |
U032 | 13765-19-0 | Calcium chromate |
U032 | 13765-19-0 | Chromic acid H2 CrO4, calcium salt |
U033 | 353-50-4 | Carbonic difluoride |
U033 | 353-50-4 | Carbon oxyfluoride (R,T) |
U034 | 75-87-6 | Acetaldehyde, trichloro- |
U034 | 75-87-6 | Chloral |
U035 | 305-03-3 | Benzenebutanoic acid, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]- |
U035 | 305-03-3 | Chlorambucil |
U036 | 57-74-9 | Chlordane, alpha & gamma isomers |
U036 | 57-74-9 | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octachloro-2,3,3a,4,7,7a-hexahydro- |
U037 | 108-90-7 | Benzene, chloro- |
U037 | 108-90-7 | Chlorobenzene |
U038 | 510-15-6 | Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-alpha-(4-chlorophenyl)-alpha-hydroxy-, ethyl ester |
U038 | 510-15-6 | Chlorobenzilate |
U039 | 59-50-7 | p-Chloro-m-cresol |
U039 | 59-50-7 | Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl- |
U041 | 106-89-8 | Epichlorohydrin |
U041 | 106-89-8 | Oxirane, (chloromethyl)- |
U042 | 110-75-8 | 2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether |
U042 | 110-75-8 | Ethene, (2-chloroethoxy)- |
U043 | 75-01-4 | Ethene, chloro- |
U043 | 75-01-4 | Vinyl chloride |
U044 | 67-66-3 | Chloroform |
U044 | 67-66-3 | Methane, trichloro- |
U045 | 74-87-3 | Methane, chloro- (I,T) |
U045 | 74-87-3 | Methyl chloride (I,T) |
U046 | 107-30-2 | Chloromethyl methyl ether |
U046 | 107-30-2 | Methane, chloromethoxy- |
U047 | 91-58-7 | beta-Chloronaphthalene |
U047 | 91-58-7 | Naphthalene, 2-chloro- |
U048 | 95-57-8 | o-Chlorophenol |
U048 | 95-57-8 | Phenol, 2-chloro- |
U049 | 3165-93-3 | Benzenamine, 4-chloro-2-methyl-, hydrochloride |
U049 | 3165-93-3 | 4-Chloro-o-toluidine, hydrochloride |
U050 | 218-01-9 | Chrysene |
U051 | Creosote | |
U052 | 1319-77-3 | Cresol (Cresylic acid) |
U052 | 1319-77-3 | Phenol, methyl- |
U053 | 4170-30-3 | 2-Butenal |
U053 | 4170-30-3 | Crotonaldehyde |
U055 | 98-82-8 | Benzene, (1-methylethyl)-(I) |
U055 | 98-82-8 | Cumene (I) |
U056 | 110-82-7 | Benzene, hexahydro-(I) |
U056 | 110-82-7 | Cyclohexane (I) |
U057 | 108-94-1 | Cyclohexanone (I) |
U058 | 50-18-0 | Cyclophosphamide |
U058 | 50-18-0 | 2H-1,3,2-Oxazaphosphorin-2-amine, N,N-bis(2-chloroethyl)tetrahydro-, 2-oxide |
U059 | 20830-81-3 | Daunomycin |
U059 | 20830-81-3 | 5,12-Naphthacenedione, 8-acetyl-10-[(3-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy)-alpha-L-lyxo-hexopyranosyl)oxy]-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy-, (8S-cis)- |
U060 | 72-54-8 | Benzene, 1,1 '-(2,2-dichloroethylidene)bis[4-chloro- |
U060 | 72-54-8 | DDD |
U061 | 50-29-3 | Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis[4-chloro- |
U061 | 50-29-3 | DDT |
U062 | 2303-16-4 | Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3-di chloro-2-propenyl) ester |
U062 | 2303-16-4 | Diallate |
U063 | 53-70-3 | Dibenz[a,h]anthracene |
U064 | 189-55-9 | Benzo[rst]pentaphene |
U064 | 189-55-9 | Dibenzo[a,i]pyrene |
U066 | 96-12-8 | 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane |
U066 | 96-12-8 | Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro- |
U067 | 106-93-4 | Ethane, 1,2-dibromo- |
U067 | 106-93-4 | Ethylene dibromide |
U068 | 74-95-3 | Methane, dibromo- |
U068 | 74-95-3 | Methylene bromide |
U069 | 84-74-2 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester |
U069 | 84-74-2 | Dibutyl phthalate |
U070 | 95-50-1 | Benzene, 1,2-dichloro- |
U070 | 95-50-1 | o-Dichlorobenzene |
U071 | 541-73-1 | Benzene, 1,3-dichloro- |
U071 | 541-73-1 | m-Dichlorobenzene |
U072 | 106-46-7 | Benzene, 1,4-dichloro- |
U072 | 106-46-7 | p-Dichlorobenzene |
U073 | 91-94-1 | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dichloro- |
U073 | 91-94-1 | 3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine |
U074 | 764-41-0 | 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro-(I,T) |
U074 | 764-41-0 | 1,4-Dichloro-2-butene (I,T) |
U075 | 75-71-8 | Dichlorodifluoromethane |
U075 | 75-71-8 | Methane, dichlorodifluoro- |
U076 | 75-34-3 | Ethane, 1,1-dichloro- |
U076 | 75-34-3 | Ethylidene dichloride |
U077 | 107-06-2 | Ethane, 1,2-dichloro- |
U077 | 107-06-2 | Ethylene dichloride |
U078 | 75-35-4 | 1,1-Dichloroethylene |
U078 | 75-35-4 | Ethene, 1,1-dichloro- |
U079 | 156-60-5 | 1,2-Dichloroethylene |
U079 | 156-60-5 | Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-, (E)- |
U080 | 75-09-2 | Methane, dichloro- |
U080 | 75-09-2 | Methylene chloride |
U081 | 120-83-2 | 2,4-Dichlorophenol |
U081 | 120-83-2 | Phenol, 2,4-dichloro- |
U082 | 87-65-0 | 2,6-Dichlorophenol |
U082 | 87-65-0 | Phenol, 2,6-dichloro- |
U083 | 78-87-5 | Propane, 1,2-dichloro- |
U083 | 78-87-5 | Propylene dichloride |
U084 | 542-75-6 | 1,3-Dichloropropene |
U084 | 542-75-6 | 1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro- |
U085 | 1464-53-5 | 2,2'-Bioxirane |
U085 | 1464-53-5 | 1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane (I,T) |
U086 | 1615-80-1 | N,N'-Diethylhydrazine |
U086 | 1615-80-1 | Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl- |
U087 | 3288-58-2 | O,O-Diethyl S-methyl dithiophosphate |
U087 | 3288-58-2 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-methyl ester |
U088 | 84-66-2 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester |
U088 | 84-66-2 | Diethyl phthalate |
U089 | 56-53-1 | Diethylstilbesterol |
U089 | 56-53-1 | Phenol, 4,4'-(l,2-diethyl-l,2-ethenediyl)bis-, (E)- |
U090 | 94-58-6 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-propyl- |
U090 | 94-58-6 | Dihydrosafrole |
U091 | 119-90-4 | [1,1 '-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethoxy- |
U091 | 119-90-4 | 3,3'-Dimethoxybenzidine |
U092 | 124-40-3 | Dimethylamine (I) |
U092 | 124-40-3 | Methanamine, -methyl-(I) |
U093 | 60-11-7 | Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)- |
U093 | 60-11-7 | p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene |
U094 | 57-97-6 | Benz[a]anthracene, 7,12-dimethyl- |
U094 | 57-97-6 | 7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]anthracene |
U095 | 119-93-7 | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethyl- |
U095 | 119-93-7 | 3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine |
U096 | 80-15-9 | alpha, alpha-Dimethylbenzylhydroperoxide (R) |
U096 | 80-15-9 | Hydroperoxide, 1 -methyl-1 -phenyl ethyl-(R) |
U097 | 79-44-7 | Carbamic chloride, dimethyl- |
U097 | 79-44-7 | Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride |
U098 | 57-14-7 | 1,1 -Dimethylhydrazine |
U098 | 57-14-7 | Hydrazine, 1,1 -dimethyl- |
U099 | 540-73-8 | 1,2-Dimethylhydrazine |
U099 | 540-73-8 | Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl- |
UlOl | 105-67-9 | 2,4-Dimethylphenol |
UlOl | 105-67-9 | Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl- |
U102 | 131-11-3 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester |
U102 | 131-11-3 | Dimethyl phthalate |
U103 | 77-78-1 | Dimethyl sulfate |
U103 | 77-78-1 | Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester |
U105 | 121-14-2 | Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro- |
U105 | 121-14-2 | 2,4-Dinitrotoluene |
U106 | 606-20-2 | Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro- |
U106 | 606-20-2 | 2,6-Dinitrotoluene |
U107 | 117-84-0 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dioctyl ester |
U107 | 117-84-0 | Di-n-octyl phthalate |
U108 | 123-91-1 | 1,4-Diethyleneoxide |
U108 | 123-91-1 | 1,4-Dioxane |
U109 | 122-66-7 | 1,2-Diphenylhydrazine |
U109 | 122-66-7 | Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl- |
U110 | 142-84-7 | Dipropylamine (I) |
U110 | 142-84-7 | 1-Propanamine, N-propyl-(I) |
U111 | 621-64-7 | Di-n-propylnitrosamine |
U111 | 621-64-7 | 1-Propanamine, N-nitroso-N-propyl- |
U112 | 141-78-6 | Acetic acid ethyl ester (I) |
U112 | 141-78-6 | Ethyl acetate (I) |
U113 | 140-88-5 | Ethyl acrylate (I) |
U113 | 140-88-5 | 2-Propenoic acid, ethyl ester (I) |
U114 | 1111-54-6 | Carbamodithioic acid, 1,2-ethanediylbis-, salts & esters |
U114 | 1111-54-6 | Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid, salts & esters |
U115 | 75-21-8 | Ethylene oxide (I,T) |
U115 | 75-21-8 | Oxirane (I,T) |
U116 | 96-45-7 | Ethylenethiourea |
U116 | 96-45-7 | 2-Imidazolidinethione |
U117 | 60-29-7 | Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis-(I) |
U117 | 60-29-7 | Ethyl ether (I) |
U118 | 97-63-2 | Ethyl methacrylate |
U118 | 97-63-2 | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester |
U119 | 62-50-0 | Ethyl methanesulfonate |
U119 | 62-50-0 | Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester |
U120 | 206-44-0 | Fluoranthene |
U121 | 75-69-4 | Methane, trichlorofluoro- |
U121 | 75-69-4 | Trichloromonofluoromethane |
U122 | 50-00-0 | Formaldehyde |
U123 | 64-18-6 | Formic acid (C,T) |
U124 | 110-00-9 | Furan (I) |
U124 | 110-00-9 | Furfuran (I) |
U125 | 98-01-1 | 2-Furancarboxaldehyde (I) |
U125 | 98-01-1 | Furfural (I) |
U126 | 765-34-4 | Glycidylaldehyde |
U126 | 765-34-4 | Oxiranecarboxyaldehyde |
U127 | 118-74-1 | Benzene, hexachloro- |
U127 | 118-74-1 | Hexachlorobenzene |
U128 | 87-68-3 | 1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro- |
U128 | 87-68-3 | Hexachlorobutadiene |
U129 | 58-89-9 | Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-, (1alpha,2alpha,3beta,4alpha,5alpha,6beta)- |
U129 | 58-89-9 | Lindane |
U130 | 77-47-4 | 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro- |
U130 | 77-47-4 | Hexachlorocyclopentadiene |
U131 | 67-72-1 | Ethane, hexachloro- |
U131 | 67-72-1 | Hexachloroethane |
U132 | 70-30-4 | Hexachlorophene |
U132 | 70-30-4 | Phenol, 2,2'-methylenebis[3,4,6-trichloro- |
U133 | 302-01-2 | Hydrazine (R,T) |
U134 | 7664-39-3 | Hydrofluoric acid (C,T) |
U134 | 7664-39-3 | Hydrogen fluoride (C,T) |
U135 | 7783-06-4 | Hydrogen sulfide |
U135 | 7783-06-4 | Hydrogen sulfide H2S |
U136 | 75-60-5 | Arsinic acid, dimethyl- |
U136 | 75-60-5 | Cacodylic acid |
U137 | 193-39-5 | Indeno[1,2,3-cd]pyrene |
U138 | 74-88-4 | Methane, iodo- |
U138 | 74-88-4 | Methyl iodide |
U140 | 78-83-1 | Isobutyl alcohol (I,T) |
U140 | 78-83-1 | 1-Propanol, 2-methyl- (I,T) |
U141 | 120-58-1 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-propenyl)- |
U141 | 120-58-1 | Isosafrole |
U142 | 143-50-0 | Kepone |
U142 | 143-50-0 | 1,3,4-Metheno-2H-cyclobuta[cd]pentalen-2-one, 1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-decachlorooctahydro- |
U143 | 303-34-4 | 2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 7-[[2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy]methyl]-2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-1H-pyrrolizin-1-yl ester, [1S-[1alpha(Z),7(2S*,3R*),7aalpha]]- |
U143 | 303-34-4 | Lasiocarpine |
U144 | 301-04-2 | Acetic acid, lead(2 +) salt |
U144 | 301-04-2 | Lead acetate |
U145 | 7446-27-7 | Lead phosphate |
U145 | 7446-27-7 | Phosphoric acid, lead(2 +) salt (2:3) |
U146 | 1335-32-6 | Lead, bis(acetato-O)tetrahydroxytri- |
U146 | 1335-32-6 | Lead subacetate |
U147 | 108-31-6 | 2,5-Furandione |
U147 | 108-31-6 | Maleic anhydride |
U148 | 123-33-1 | Maleic hydrazide |
U148 | 123-33-1 | 3,6-Pyridazinedione, 1,2-dihydro- |
U149 | 109-77-3 | Malononitrile |
U149 | 109-77-3 | Propanedinitrile |
U150 | 148-82-3 | Melphalan |
U150 | 148-82-3 | L-Phenylalanine, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]- |
U151 | 7439-97-6 | Mercury |
U152 | 126-98-7 | Methacrylonitrile (I,T) |
U152 | 126-98-7 | 2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl- (I,T) |
U153 | 74-93-1 | Methanethiol (I,T) |
U153 | 74-93-1 | Thiomethanol (I,T) |
U154 | 67-56-1 | Methanol (I) |
U154 | 67-56-1 | Methyl alcohol (I) |
U155 | 91-80-5 | 1,2-Ethanediamine, N,N-dimethyl-N'-2-pyridinyl-N'-(2-thienylmethyl)- |
U155 | 91-80-5 | Methapyrilene |
U156 | 79-22-1 | Carbonochloridic acid, methyl ester (I,T) |
U156 | 79-22-1 | Methyl chlorocarbonate (I,T) |
U157 | 56-49-5 | Benz[j]aceanthrylene, 1,2-dihydro-3-methyl- |
U157 | 56-49-5 | 3-Methylcholanthrene |
U158 | 101-14-4 | Benzenamine, 4,4'-methylenebis[2-chloro- |
U158 | 101-14-4 | 4,4'-Methylenebis(2-chloroaniline) |
U159 | 78-93-3 | 2-Butanone (I,T) |
U159 | 78-93-3 | Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) (I,T) |
U160 | 1338-23-4 | 2-Butanone, peroxide (R,T) |
U160 | 1338-23-4 | Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide (R,T) |
U161 | 108-10-1 | Methyl isobutyl ketone (I) |
U161 | 108-10-1 | 4-Methyl-2-pentanone (I) |
U161 | 108-10-1 | Pentanol, 4-methyl- |
U162 | 80-62-6 | Methyl methacrylate (I,T) |
U162 | 80-62-6 | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester (I,T) |
U163 | 70-25-7 | Guanidine, -methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitroso- |
U163 | 70-25-7 | MNNG |
U164 | 56-04-2 | Methylthiouracil |
U164 | 56-04-2 | 4(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxo- |
U165 | 91-20-3 | Naphthalene |
U166 | 130-15-4 | 1,4-Naphthalenedione |
U166 | 130-15-4 | 1,4-Naphthoquinone |
U167 | 134-32-7 | 1-Naphthalenamine |
U167 | 134-32-7 | alpha-Naphthylamine |
U168 | 91-59-8 | 2-Naphthalenamine |
U168 | 91-59-8 | beta-Naphthylamine |
U169 | 98-95-3 | Benzene, nitro- |
U169 | 98-95-3 | Nitrobenzene (I,T) |
U170 | 100-02-7 | p-Nitrophenol |
U170 | 100-02-7 | Phenol, 4-nitro- |
U171 | 79-46-9 | 2-Nitropropane (I,T) |
U171 | 79-46-9 | Propane, 2-nitro- (I,T) |
U172 | 924-16-3 | 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso- |
U172 | 924-16-3 | N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine |
U173 | 1116-54-7 | Ethanol, 2,2'-(nitrosoimino)bis- |
U173 | 1116-54-7 | N-Nitrosodiethanolamine |
U174 | 55-18-5 | Ethanamine, -ethyl-N-nitroso- |
U174 | 55-18-5 | N-Nitrosodiethylamine |
U176 | 759-73-9 | N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea |
U176 | 759-73-9 | Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitroso- |
U177 | 684-93-5 | N-Nitroso-N-methylurea |
U177 | 684-93-5 | Urea, N-methyl-N-nitroso- |
U178 | 615-53-2 | Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester |
U178 | 615-53-2 | N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane |
U179 | 100-75-4 | N-Nitrosopiperidine |
U179 | 100-75-4 | Piperidine, 1-nitroso- |
U180 | 930-55-2 | N-Nitrosopyrrolidine |
U180 | 930-55-2 | Pyrrolidine, 1-nitroso- |
U181 | 99-55-8 | Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro- |
U181 | 99-55-8 | 5-Nitro-o-toluidine |
U182 | 123-63-7 | 1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl- |
U182 | 123-63-7 | Paraldehyde |
U183 | 608-93-5 | Benzene, pentachloro- |
U183 | 608-93-5 | Pentachlorobenzene |
U184 | 76-01-7 | Ethane, pentachloro- |
U184 | 76-01-7 | Pentachloroethane |
U185 | 82-68-8 | Benzene, pentachloronitro- |
U185 | 82-68-8 | Pentachloronitrobenzene (PCNB) |
U186 | 504-60-9 | 1-Methylbutadiene (I) |
U186 | 504-60-9 | 1,3-Pentadiene (I) |
U187 | 62-44-2 | Acetamide, -(4-ethoxyphenyl)- |
U187 | 62-44-2 | Phenacetin |
U188 | 108-95-2 | Phenol |
U189 | 1314-80-3 | Phosphorus sulfide (R) |
U189 | 1314-80-3 | Sulfur phosphide (R) |
U190 | 85-44-9 | 1,3-Isobenzofurandione |
U190 | 85-44-9 | Phthalic anhydride |
U191 | 109-06-8 | 2-Picoline |
U191 | 109-06-8 | Pyridine, 2-methyl- |
U192 | 23950-58-5 | Benzamide, 3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl)- |
U192 | 23950-58-5 | Pronamide |
U193 | 1120-71-4 | 1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide |
U193 | 1120-71-4 | 1,3-Propane sultone |
U194 | 107-10-8 | 1-Propanamine (I,T) |
U194 | 107-10-8 | n-Propylamine (I,T) |
U196 | 110-86-1 | Pyridine |
U197 | 106-51-4 | p-Benzoquinone |
U197 | 106-51-4 | 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione |
U200 | 50-55-5 | Reserpine |
U200 | 50-55-5 | Yohimban-16-carboxylic acid, 11,17-dimethoxy-18-[(3,4,5-trimethoxybenzoyl)oxy]-, methyl ester,(3beta,16beta,17alpha,18beta,20alpha)- |
U201 | 108-46-3 | 1,3-Benzenediol |
U201 | 108-46-3 | Resorcinol |
U203 | 94-59-7 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(2-propenyl)- |
U203 | 94-59-7 | Safrole |
U204 | 7783-00-8 | Selenious acid |
U204 | 7783-00-8 | Selenium dioxide |
U205 | 7488-56-4 | Selenium sulfide |
U205 | 7488-56-4 | Selenium sulfide SeS2 (R,T) |
U206 | 18883-66-4 | Glucopyranose, 2-deoxy-2-(3-methyl-3-nitrosoureido)-, D- |
U206 | 18883-66-4 | D-Glucose, 2-deoxy-2-[[(methylnitrosoamino)-carbonyl]amino]- |
U206 | 18883-66-4 | Streptozotocin |
U207 | 95-94-3 | Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro- |
U207 | 95-94-3 | 1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene |
U208 | 630-20-6 | Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro- |
U208 | 630-20-6 | 1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane |
U209 | 79-34-5 | Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro- |
U209 | 79-34-5 | 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane |
U210 | 127-18-4 | Ethene, tetrachloro- |
U210 | 127-18-4 | Tetrachloroethylene |
U211 | 56-23-5 | Carbon tetrachloride |
U211 | 56-23-5 | Methane, tetrachloro- |
U213 | 109-99-9 | Furan, tetrahydro-(I) |
U213 | 109-99-9 | Tetrahydrofuran (I) |
U214 | 563-68-8 | Acetic acid, thallium(1 +) salt |
U214 | 563-68-8 | Thallium(I) acetate |
U215 | 6533-73-9 | Carbonic acid, dithallium(1 +) salt |
U215 | 6533-73-9 | Thallium(I) carbonate |
U216 | 7791-12-0 | Thallium(I) chloride |
U216 | 7791-12-0 | Thallium chloride TlCl |
U217 | 10102-45-1 | Nitric acid, thallium(1 +) salt |
U217 | 10102-45-1 | Thallium(I) nitrate |
U218 | 62-55-5 | Ethanethioamide |
U218 | 62-55-5 | Thioacetamide |
U219 | 62-56-6 | Thiourea |
U220 | 108-88-3 | Benzene, methyl- |
U220 | 108-88-3 | Toluene |
U221 | 25376-45-8 | Benzenediamine, ar-methyl- |
U221 | 25376-45-8 | Toluenediamine |
U222 | 636-21-5 | Benzenamine, 2-methyl-, hydrochloride |
U222 | 636-21-5 | o-Toluidine hydrochloride |
U223 | 26471-62-5 | Benzene, 1,3-diisocyanatomethyl- (R,T) |
U223 | 26471-62-5 | Toluene diisocyanate (R,T) |
U225 | 75-25-2 | Bromoform |
U225 | 75-25-2 | Methane, tribromo- |
U226 | 71-55-6 | Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro- |
U226 | 71-55-6 | Methyl chloroform |
U226 | 71-55-6 | 1,1,1-Trichloroethane |
U227 | 79-00-5 | Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro- |
U227 | 79-00-5 | 1,1,2-Trichloroethane |
U228 | 79-01-6 | Ethene, trichloro- |
U228 | 79-01-6 | Trichloroethylene |
U234 | 99-35-4 | Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro- |
U234 | 99-35-4 | 1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene (R,T) |
U235 | 126-72-7 | 1-Propanol, 2,3-dibromo-, phosphate (3:1) |
U235 | 126-72-7 | Tris(2,3-dibromopropyl) phosphate |
U236 | 72-57-1 | 2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic acid, 3,3'-[(3,3'-dimethyl[1,1'-biphenyl]-4,4'-diyl)bis(azo)bis[5-amino-4-hydroxy]-, tetrasodium salt |
U236 | 72-57-1 | Trypan blue |
U237 | 66-75-1 | 2,4-(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione, 5-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]- |
U237 | 66-75-1 | Uracil mustard |
U238 | 51-79-6 | Carbamic acid, ethyl ester |
U238 | 51-79-6 | Ethyl carbamate (urethane) |
U239 | 1330-20-7 | Benzene, dimethyl- (I,T) |
U239 | 1330-20-7 | Xylene (I) |
U240 | 194-75-7 | Acetic acid, (2,4-dichlorophenoxy)-, salts & esters |
U240 | 194-75-7 | 2,4-D, salts & esters |
U243 | 1888-71-7 | Hexachloropropene |
U243 | 1888-71-7 | 1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-hexachloro- |
U244 | 137-26-8 | Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide [(H2N)C(S)]2 S2, tetramethyl- |
U244 | 137-26-8 | Thiram |
U246 | 506-68-3 | Cyanogen bromide (CN)Br |
U247 | 72-43-5 | Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis[4- methoxy- |
U247 | 72-43-5 | Methoxychlor |
U248 | 181-81-2 | 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenyl-butyl)-, & salts, when present at concentrations of 0.3% or less |
U248 | 181-81-2 | Warfarin, & salts, when present at concentrations of 0.3% or less |
U249 | 1314-84-7 | Zinc phosphide Zn3 P2, when present at concentrations of 10% or less |
U271 | 17804-35-2 | Benomyl |
U271 | 17804-35-2 | Carbamic acid, [1-[(butylamino)carbonyl]-1H-benzimidazol-2-yl]-, methyl ester |
U278 | 22781-23-3 | Bendiocarb |
U278 | 22781-23-3 | 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-, methyl carbamate |
U279 | 63-25-2 | Carbaryl |
U279 | 63-25-2 | 1-Naphthalenol, methylcarbamate |
U280 | 101-27-9 | Barban |
U280 | 101-27-9 | Carbamic acid, (3-chlorophenyl)-, 4-chloro-2-butynyl ester |
U328 | 95-53-4 | Benzenamine, 2-methyl- |
U328 | 95-53-4 | o-Toluidine |
U353 | 106-49-0 | Benzenamine, 4-methyl- |
U353 | 106-49-0 | p-Toluidine |
U359 | 110-80-5 | Ethanol, 2-ethoxy- |
U359 | 110-80-5 | Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether |
U364 | 22961-82-6 | Bendiocarb phenol |
U364 | 22961-82-6 | 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-, |
U367 | 1563-38-8 | 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl- |
U367 | 1563-38-8 | Carbofuran phenol |
U372 | 10605-21-7 | Carbamic acid, 1H-benzimidazol-2-yl, methyl ester |
U372 | 10605-21-7 | Carbendazim |
U373 | 122-42-9 | Carbamic acid, phenyl-, 1-methylethyl ester |
U373 | 122-42-9 | Propham |
U387 | 52888-80-9 | Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-, S-(phenylmethyl) ester |
U387 | 52888-80-9 | Prosulfocarb |
U389 | 2303-17-5 | Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3,3-trichloro-2-propenyl) ester |
U389 | 2303-17-5 | Triallate |
U394 | 30558-43-1 | A2213 |
U394 | 30558-43-1 | Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-hydroxy-2-oxo-, methyl ester |
U395 | 5952-26-1 | Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate |
U395 | 5952-26-1 | Ethanol, 2,2'-oxybis-, dicarbamate |
U404 | 121-44-8 | Ethanamine, N,N-diethyl- |
U404 | 121-44-8 | Triethylamine |
U409 | 23564-05-8 | Carbamic acid, [1,2-phenylenebis (iminocarbonothioyl)]bis-, dimethyl ester |
U409 | 23564-05-8 | Thiophanate-methyl |
U410 | 59669-26-0 | Ethanimidothioic acid, N,N'-[thiobis[(methylimino)carbonyloxy]]bis-, dimethyl ester |
U410 | 59669-26-0 | Thiodicarb |
U411 | 114-26-1 | Phenol, 2-(1-methylethoxy)-, methylcarbamate |
U411 | 114-26-1 | Propoxur |
See F027 | 93-76-5 | Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- |
See F027 | 87-86-5 | Pentachlorophenol |
See F027 | 87-86-5 | Phenol, pentachloro- |
See F027 | 58-90-2 | Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro- |
See F027 | 95-95-4 | Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro- |
See F027 | 88-06-2 | Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro- |
See F027 | 93-72-1 | Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- |
See F027 | 93-72-1 | Silvex (2,4,5-TP) |
See F027 | 93-76-5 | 2,4,5-T |
See F027 | 58-90-2 | 2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol |
See F027 | 95-95-4 | 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol |
See F027 | 88-06-2 | 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol |
\1\ CAS Number given for parent compound only.
Used, broken CRTs are not solid wastes if they meet the following conditions:
Used, intact CRTs exported for recycling are not solid wastes if they meet the notice and consent conditions of § 261.39(a)(5), and if they are not speculatively accumulated as defined in § 261.1(c)(8).
Used, intact CRTs exported for recycling are not solid wastes if they meet the notice and consent conditions of § 261.39(a)(5), and if they are not speculatively accumulated as defined in § 261.1(c)(8).
The terms defined in §265.141(d), (f), (g), and (h) of this rule have the same meaning in this subsection as they do in §265.141 of this rule.
Per §261.4(a)(24)(vi)(F) of this rule, an owner or operator of a reclamation or intermediate facility must have financial assurance as a condition of the exclusion as required under §261.4(a)(24) of this rule. He must choose from the options as specified in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this rule.
This subsection applies to hazardous secondary materials excluded under the remanufacturing exclusion at §261.4(a)(27) and stored in containers.
If a container holding hazardous secondary material is not in good condition (e.g., severe rusting, apparent structural defects) or if it begins to leak, the hazardous secondary material must be transferred from this container to a container that is in good condition or managed in some other way that complies with the requirements of this Section.
The container must be made of or lined with materials which will not react with, and are otherwise compatible with, the hazardous secondary material to be stored, so that the ability of the container to contain the material is not impaired.
Containers holding ignitable or reactive hazardous secondary material must be located at least 15 meters (50 feet) from the facility's property line.
The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall manage all hazardous secondary material placed in a container in accordance with the applicable requirements of subsections AA, BB, and CC of this Section.
Note: The practices described in the American Petroleum Institute (API) Publication, Guide for Inspection of Refinery Equipment, Chapter XIII, "Atmospheric and Low-Pressure Storage Tanks," 4th edition, 1981, may be used, where applicable, as guidelines in conducting other than a leak test.
Note: If the collected material is a hazardous waste under Section 261 of this rule, it is subject to management as a hazardous waste in accordance with all applicable requirements of Sections 262 through 265, 266, and 268 of this rule. If the collected material is discharged through a point source to waters of the United States, it is subject to the requirements of sections 301, 304, and 402 of the Clean Water Act, as amended. If discharged to a Publicly Owned Treatment Works (POTW), it is subject to the requirements of section 307 of the Clean Water Act, as amended. If the collected material is released to the environment, it may be subject to the reporting requirements of 40 CFR part 302 .
Note: The provisions outlined in the Steel Tank Institute's (STI) "Standard for Dual Wall Underground Steel Storage Tanks" may be used as guidelines for aspects of the design of underground steel double-walled tanks.
A tank system or secondary containment system from which there has been a leak or spill, or which is unfit for use, must be removed from service immediately, and the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must satisfy the following requirements:
Note 1: The Director may, on the basis of any information received that there is or has been a release of hazardous secondary material or hazardous constituents into the environment, issue an order under the Arkansas Remedial Trust Fund Act (A.C.A. §§ 8-7-501et seq.) requiring corrective action or such other response as deemed necessary to protect human health or the environment.
Note 2: 40 CFR part 302 may require the owner or operator to notify the National Response Center of certain releases.
Hazardous secondary material stored in units more than 90 days after the unit ceases to operate under the remanufacturing exclusion at APC&EC Rule No. 23 261.4(a)(27) or otherwise ceases to be operated for manufacturing, or for storage of a product or a raw material, then becomes subject to rule as hazardous waste under Sections 261 through 266, 268, 270, 271, and 124 of this rule, as applicable.
The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall manage all hazardous secondary material placed in a tank in accordance with the applicable requirements of subsections AA, BB, and CC of this Section.
The requirements of this subsection apply to those areas of an entity managing hazardous secondary materials excluded under § 261.4(a)(23) and/or (24) where hazardous secondary materials are generated or accumulated on site.
A generator or an intermediate or reclamation facility operating under a verified recycler variance under § 260.31(d) that generates or accumulates 6000 kg or less of hazardous secondary material must comply with the following requirements:
A generator or an intermediate or reclamation facility operating under a verified recycler variance under § 260.31(d) that generates or accumulates more than 6000 kg of hazardous secondary material must comply with the following requirements:
The rules in this subsection apply to process vents associated with distillation, fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or stream stripping operations that manage hazardous secondary materials excluded under the remanufacturing exclusion at § 261.4(a)(27) with concentrations of at least 10 ppmw, unless the process vents are equipped with operating air emission controls in accordance with the requirements of an applicable Clean Air Act regulation codified under 40 CFR part 60, part 61, or part 63.
As used in this Subsection, all terms shall have the meaning given them in § 264.1031, RCRA, the Act, and Sections 260-266 of this rule.
where:
HT=Net heating value of the sample, MJ/scm; where the net enthalpy per mole of offgas is based on combustion at 25 °C and 760 mm Hg, but the standard temperature for determining the volume corresponding to 1 mol is 20 °C;
K=Constant, 1.74X10-7 (1/ppm) (g mol/scm) (MJ/kcal) where standard temperature for (g mol/scm) is 20 °C;
Ci=Concentration of sample component i in ppm on a wet basis, as measured for organics by Reference Method 18 in 40 CFR part 60 and measured for hydrogen and carbon monoxide by ASTM D 1946-82 (incorporated by reference as specified in § 260.11); and
Hi=Net heat of combustion of sample component i, kcal/g mol at 25 °C and 760 mm Hg. The heats of combustion may be determined using ASTM D 2382-83 (incorporated by reference as specified in § 260.11) if published values are not available or cannot be calculated.
where:
HT =The net heating value as determined in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
28.8=Constant,
31.7=Constant.
where:
8.706 = Constant.
0.7084 = Constant.
HT = The net heating value as determined in paragraph (e)(2) of this section. T
where:
Eh=Total organic mass flow rate, kg/h;
Q2sd=Volumetric flow rate of gases entering or exiting control device, as determined by Method 2, dscm/h;
n=Number of organic compounds in the vent gas;
Ci=Organic concentration in ppm, dry basis, of compound in the vent gas, as determined by Method 18;
MWi=Molecular weight of organic compound in the vent gas, kg/kg-mol;
0. 0416=Conversion factor for molar volume, kg-mol/m3 (@ 293 K and 760 mm Hg);
10-6=Conversion from ppm.
Where:
Eh = Total organic mass flow rate, kg/h;
Q = Volumetric flow rate of gases entering or exiting control device, as determined by Method 2, dscm/h;
C = Organic concentration in ppm, dry basis, as determined by Method 25A;
MW = Molecular weight of propane, 44;
0.0416 = Conversion factor for molar volume, kg-mol/m3 (@ 293 K and 760 mm Hg);
10-6 = Conversion from ppm.
where:
EA=Total organic mass emission rate, kg/y;
Eh=Total organic mass flow rate for the process vent, kg/h;
H=Total annual hours of operations for the affected unit, h.
As used in this Subsection, all terms shall have the meaning given them in § 261.1031, the Act, and Sections 260-266.
As used in this subsection, all terms not defined herein shall have the meaning given to them in the Act and Sections 260 through 266 of this rule.
"Average volatile organic concentration" or "average VO concentration" means the mass-weighted average volatile organic concentration of a hazardous secondary materials as determined in accordance with the requirements of § 261.1084 of this subsection.
"Closure device" means a cap, hatch, lid, plug, seal, valve, or other type of fitting that blocks an opening in a cover such that when the device is secured in the closed position it prevents or reduces air pollutant emissions to the atmosphere. Closure devices include devices that are detachable from the cover (e.g., a sampling port cap), manually operated (e.g., a hinged access lid or hatch), or automatically operated (e.g., a spring-loaded pressure relief valve).
"Continuous seal" means a seal that forms a continuous closure that completely covers the space between the edge of the floating roof and the wall of a tank. A continuous seal may be a vapor-mounted seal, liquid-mounted seal, or metallic shoe seal. A continuous seal may be constructed of fastened segments so as to form a continuous seal.
"Cover" means a device that provides a continuous barrier over the hazardous secondary materials managed in a unit to prevent or reduce air pollutant emissions to the atmosphere. A cover may have openings (such as access hatches, sampling ports, gauge wells) that are necessary for operation, inspection, maintenance, and repair of the unit on which the cover is used. A cover may be a separate piece of equipment which can be detached and removed from the unit or a cover may be formed by structural features permanently integrated into the design of the unit.
"Enclosure" means a structure that surrounds a tank or container, captures organic vapors emitted from the tank or container, and vents the captured vapors through a closed-vent system to a control device.
"External floating roof" means a pontoon-type or double-deck type cover that rests on the surface of the material managed in a tank with no fixed roof.
"Fixed roof" means a cover that is mounted on a unit in a stationary position and does not move with fluctuations in the level of the material managed in the unit.
"Floating membrane cover" means a cover consisting of a synthetic flexible membrane material that rests upon and is supported by the hazardous secondary materials being managed in a surface impoundment.
"Floating roof" means a cover consisting of a double deck, pontoon single deck, or internal floating cover which rests upon and is supported by the material being contained, and is equipped with a continuous seal.
"Hard-piping" means pipe or tubing that is manufactured and properly installed in accordance with relevant standards and good engineering practices.
"In light material service" means the container is used to manage a material for which both of the following conditions apply: The vapor pressure of one or more of the organic constituents in the material is greater than 0.3 kilopascals (kPa) at 20°C; and the total concentration of the pure organic constituents having a vapor pressure greater than 0.3 kPa at 20°C is equal to or greater than 20 percent by weight.
"Internal floating roof" means a cover that rests or floats on the material surface (but not necessarily in complete contact with it) inside a tank that has a fixed roof.
"Liquid-mounted seal" means a foam or liquid-filled primary seal mounted in contact with the hazardous waste between the tank wall and the floating roof continuously around the circumference of the tank.
"Malfunction" means any sudden, infrequent, and not reasonably preventable failure of air pollution control equipment, process equipment, or a process to operate in a normal or usual manner. Failures that are caused in part by poor maintenance or careless operation are not malfunctions.
"Maximum organic vapor pressure" means the sum of the individual organic constituent partial pressures exerted by the material contained in a tank, at the maximum vapor pressure-causing conditions (i.e., temperature, agitation, pH effects of combining wastes, etc.) reasonably expected to occur in the tank. For the purpose of this subsection, maximum organic vapor pressure is determined using the procedures specified in § 261.1084(c) of this subsection.
"Metallic shoe seal" means a continuous seal that is constructed of metal sheets which are held vertically against the wall of the tank by springs, weighted levers, or other mechanisms and is connected to the floating roof by braces or other means. A flexible coated fabric (envelope) spans the annular space between the metal sheet and the floating roof.
"No detectable organic emissions" means no escape of organics to the atmosphere as determined using the procedure specified in § 261.1084(d) of this subsection.
"Point of waste origination" means as follows:
[Note: In this case, this term is being used in a manner similar to the use of the term "point of generation" in air standards established for waste management operations under authority of the Clean Air Act in 40 CFR Parts 60, 61, and 63].
"Point of waste treatment" means the point where a hazardous secondary materials to be treated in accordance with § 261.1083(c)(2) of this subsection exits the treatment process. Any waste determination shall be made before the waste is conveyed, handled, or otherwise managed in a manner that allows the waste to volatilize to the atmosphere.
"Safety device" means a closure device such as a pressure relief valve, frangible disc, fusible plug, or any other type of device which functions exclusively to prevent physical damage or permanent deformation to a unit or its air emission control equipment by venting gases or vapors directly to the atmosphere during unsafe conditions resulting from an unplanned, accidental, or emergency event. For the purpose of this subsection, a safety device is not used for routine venting of gases or vapors from the vapor headspace underneath a cover such as during filling of the unit or to adjust the pressure in this vapor headspace in response to normal daily diurnal ambient temperature fluctuations. A safety device is designed to remain in a closed position during normal operations and open only when the internal pressure, or another relevant parameter, exceeds the device threshold setting applicable to the air emission control equipment as determined by the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material based on manufacturer recommendations, applicable rules, fire protection and prevention codes, standard engineering codes and practices, or other requirements for the safe handling of flammable, ignitable, explosive, reactive, or hazardous materials.
"Single-seal system" means a floating roof having one continuous seal. This seal may be vapor-mounted, liquid-mounted, or a metallic shoe seal.
"Vapor-mounted seal" means a continuous seal that is mounted such that there is a vapor space between the hazardous secondary materials in the unit and the bottom of the seal.
"Volatile organic concentration" or "VO concentration" means the fraction by weight of the volatile organic compounds contained in a hazardous secondary materials expressed in terms of parts per million (ppmw) as determined by direct measurement or by knowledge of the waste in accordance with the requirements of § 261.1084 of this subsection. For the purpose of determining the VO concentration of a hazardous secondary materials, organic compounds with a Henry's law constant value of at least 0.1 mole-fraction-in-the-gas-phase/mole-fraction-in the liquid-phase (0.1 Y/X) [which can also be expressed as 1.8 x 10-6 atmospheres/gram-mole/m3] at 25 degrees Celsius must be included. Appendix VI of this subsection presents a list of compounds known to have a Henry's law constant value less than the cutoff level.
"Waste determination" means performing all applicable procedures in accordance with the requirements of § 261.1084 of this subsection to determine whether a hazardous secondary materials meets standards specified in this subsection. Examples of a waste determination include performing the procedures in accordance with the requirements of § 261.1084 of this subsection to determine the average VO concentration of a hazardous secondary materials at the point of waste origination; the average VO concentration of a hazardous secondary materials at the point of waste treatment and comparing the results to the exit concentration limit specified for the process used to treat the hazardous secondary materials; the organic reduction efficiency and the organic biodegradation efficiency for a biological process used to treat a hazardous secondary materials and comparing the results to the applicable standards; or the maximum volatile organic vapor pressure for a hazardous secondary materials in a tank and comparing the results to the applicable standards.
"Waste stabilization process" means any physical or chemical process used to either reduce the mobility of hazardous constituents in a hazardous secondary materials or eliminate free liquids as determined by Test Method 9095B (Paint Filter Liquids Test) in "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," as incorporated by reference in § 260.11 of this rule. A waste stabilization process includes mixing the hazardous secondary materials with binders or other materials, and curing the resulting hazardous secondary materials and binder mixture. Other synonymous terms used to refer to this process are "waste fixation" or "waste solidification." This does not include the adding of absorbent materials to the surface of a waste, without mixing, agitation, or subsequent curing, to absorb free liquid.
Where
C = Average VO concentration of the hazardous secondary materials at the point of waste origination on a mass-weighted basis, ppmw.
i = Individual sample "i" of the hazardous secondary materials.
n = Total number of samples of the hazardous secondary materials collected (at least 4) for the averaging period (not to exceed 1 year).
Qi = Mass quantity of hazardous secondary materials stream represented by Ci, kg/hr.
QT =Total mass quantity of hazardous secondary materials during the averaging period, kg/hr.
Ci = Measured VO concentration of sample "i" as determined in accordance with the requirements of '261.1084(a)(3)(iii) of this subsection, ppmw.
Appendix I to Section 261 -- Representative Sampling Methods
The methods and equipment used for sampling waste materials will vary with the form and consistency of the waste materials to be sampled. Samples collected using the sampling protocols listed below, for sampling waste with properties similar to the indicated materials, will be considered by the Division to be representative of the waste.
Extremely viscous liquid -- ASTM Standard D140-70 Crushed or powdered material -- ASTM Standard D346-75 Soil or rock-like material -- ASTM Standard D420-69 Soil-like material --ASTM Standard D1452-65Fly Ash-like material -- ASTM Standard D2234-76 [ASTM Standards are available from ASTM, 1916 Race St., Philadelphia, PA 19103] Containerized liquid wastes -- "COLIWASA."
Liquid waste in pits, ponds, lagoons, and similar reservoirs. -- "Pond Sampler."
Appendix II to Section 261 - (Reserved).
Appendix III to Section 261 - (Reserved) Chemical Analysis Test Methods
Appendix IV to Section 261 -- [Reserved for Radioactive Waste Test Methods]
Appendix V to Section 261 -- [Reserved for Infectious Waste Treatment Specifications]
Appendix VI to Section 261 -- [Reserved for Etiologic Agents]
Appendix VII to Section 261 -- Basis for Listing Hazardous Waste
EPA hazardous waste No. | Hazardous constituents for which listed # |
F001 | Tetrachloroethylene, methylene chloride trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, carbon tetrachloride, chlorinated fluorocarbons. |
F002 | Tetrachloroethylene, methylene chloride, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane, chlorobenzene, 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane, ortho-dichlorobenzene, trichlorofluoromethane. |
F003 | N.A. |
F004 | Cresols and cresylic acid, nitrobenzene. |
F005 | Toluene, methyl ethyl ketone, carbon disulfide, isobutanol, pyridine, 2-ethoxyethanol, benzene, 2-nitropropane. |
F006 | Cadmium, hexavalent chromium, nickel, cyanide (complexed). |
F007 | Cyanide (salts). |
F008 | Cyanide (salts). |
F009 | Cyanide (salts). |
F010 | Cyanide (salts). |
F011 | Cyanide (salts). |
F012 | Cyanide (complexed). |
F019 | Hexavalent chromium, cyanide (complexed). |
F020 | Tetra- and pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; tetra and pentachlorodi-benzofurans; tri-and tetrachlorophenols and their chlorophenoxy derivative acids, esters, ethers, amine and other salts. |
F021 | Penta- and hexachlorodibenzo-p- dioxins; penta- and hexachlorodibenzofurans; pentachlorophenol and its derivatives. |
F022 | Tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzofurans. |
F023 | Tetra-, and pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; tetra- and pentachlorodibenzofurans; tri- and tetrachlorophenols and their chlorophenoxy derivative acids, esters, ethers, amine and other salts. |
F024 | Chloromethane, dichloromethane, trichloromethane, carbon tetrachloride, chloroethylene, 1,1-dichloroethane, 1,2-dichloroethane, trans-1-2-dichloroethylene, 1,1-dichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1,2-tetra-chloroethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane, tetrachloroethylene, pentachloroethane, hexachloroethane, allyl chloride (3-chloropropene), dichloropropane, dichloropropene, 2-chloro-1,3-butadiene, hexachloro-1,3-butadiene, hexachlorocyclopentadiene, hexachlorocyclohexane, benzene, chlorbenzene, dichlorobenzenes, 1,2,4-trichlorobenzene, tetrachlorobenzene, pentachlorobenzene, hexachlorobenzene, toluene, naphthalene. |
F025 | Chloromethane; Dichloromethane; Trichloromethane; Carbon tetrachloride; Chloroethylene; 1,1-Dichloroethane; 1,2-Dichloroethane; trans-1,2-Dichloroethylene; 1,1-Dichloroethylene; 1,1,1-Trichloroethane; 1,1,2-Trichloroethane; Trichloroethylene; 1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane; 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane; Tetrachloroethylene; Pentachloroethane; Hexachloroethane; Allyl chloride (3-Chloropropene); Dichloropropane; Dichloropropene; 2-Chloro-1,3-butadiene; Hexachloro-1,3-butadiene; Hexachlorocyclopentadiene; Benzene; Chlorobenzene; Dichlorobenzene; 1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene; Tetrachlorobenzene; Pentachlorobenzene; Hexachlorobenzene; Toluene; Naphthalene. |
F026 | Tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzofurans. |
F027 | Tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzo-p- dioxins; tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzofurans; tri-, tetra-, and pentachlorophenols and their chlorophenoxy derivative acids, esters, ethers, amine and other salts. |
F028 | Tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzo-p- dioxins; tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzofurans; tri-, tetra-, and pentachlorophenols and their chlorophenoxy derivative acids, esters, ethers, amine and other salts. |
F032 | Benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, dibenz(a,h)-anthracene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene, pentachlorophenol, arsenic, chromium, tetra-, penta-, hexa-, heptachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins, tetra-, penta-, hexa-, heptachlorodibenzofurans. |
F034 | Benz(a)anthracene, benzo(k)fluoranthene, benzo(a)pyrene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene, naphthalene, arsenic, chromium. |
F035 | Arsenic, chromium, lead. |
F037 | Benzene, benzo(a)pyrene, chrysene, lead, chromium. |
F038 | Benzene, benzo(a)pyrene, chrysene, lead, chromium. |
F039 | All constituents for which treatment standards are specified for multi-source leachate (wastewaters and nonwastewaters) under 40 CFR 268.43, Table CCW. |
K001 | Pentachlorophenol, phenol, 2-chlorophenol, p-chloro-m-cresol, 2,4-dimethylphenyl, 2,4-dinitrophenol, trichlorophenols, tetrachlorophenols, 2,4-dinitrophenol, creosote, chrysene, naphthalene, fluoranthene, benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(a)pyrene, indeno(l,2,3-cd)pyrene, benz(a)anthracene, dibenz(a)anthracene, acenaphthalene. |
K002 | Hexavalent chromium, lead |
K003 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
K004 | Hexavalent chromium. |
K005 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
K006 | Hexavalent chromium. |
K007 | Cyanide (complexed), hexavalent chromium. |
K008 | Hexavalent chromium. |
K009 | Chloroform, formaldehyde, methylene chloride, methyl chloride, paraldehyde, formic acid. |
K010 | Chloroform, formaldehyde, methylene chloride, methyl chloride, paraldehyde, formic acid, chloroacetaldehyde. |
K011 | Acrylonitrile, acetonitrile, hydrocyanic acid. |
K013 | Hydrocyanic acid, acrylonitrile, acetonitrile. |
K014 | Acetonitrile, acrylamide. |
K015 | Benzyl chloride, chlorobenzene, toluene, benzotrichloride. |
K016 | Hexachlorobenzene, hexachlorobutadiene, carbon tetrachloride, hexachloroethane, perchl oroethyl ene. |
K017 | Epichlorohydrin, chloroethers [bis(chloromethyl) ether and bis (2-chloroethyl) ethers], trichloropropane, dichloropropanols. |
K018 | 1,2-dichloroethane, trichloroethyl ene, hexachlorobutadiene, hexachlorobenzene. |
K019 | Ethylene dichloride, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane, tetrachloroethanes (1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane and 1,1,1,2-tetrachloroethane), trichl oroethyl ene, tetrachl oroethyl ene, carbon tetrachloride, chloroform, vinyl chloride, vinylidene chloride. |
K020 | Ethylene di chloride, 1,1,1-trichl oroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane, tetrachloroethanes (1,1,2,2-tetrachl oroethane and 1,1,1,2-tetrachl oroethane), trichl oroethyl ene, tetrachl oroethyl ene, carbon tetrachloride, chloroform, vinyl chloride, vinylidene chloride. |
K021 | Antimony, carbon tetrachloride, chloroform. |
K022 | Phenol, tars (polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons). |
K023 | Phthalic anhydride, maleic anhydride. |
K024 | Phthalic anhydride, 1,4-naphthoquinone. |
K025 | Meta-dinitrobenzene, 2,4-dinitrotoluene. |
K026 | Paraldehyde, pyridines, 2-picoline. |
K027 | Toluene diisocyanate, toluene-2, 4-diamine. |
K028 | 1,1,1-trichloroethane, vinyl chloride. |
K029 | 1,2-dichloroethane, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, vinyl chloride, vinylidene chloride, chloroform. |
K030 | Hexachlorobenzene, hexachlorobutadiene, hexachloroethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloroethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane, ethylene dichloride. |
K031 | Arsenic. |
K032 | Hexachlorocyclopentadiene. |
K033 | Hexachlorocyclopentadiene. |
K034 | Hexachlorocyclopentadiene. |
K035 | Creosote, chrysene, naphthalene, fluoranthene benzo(b) fluoranthene, benzo(a)pyrene, indeno(1,2,3-cd) pyrene, benzo(a)anthracene, dibenzo(a)anthracene, acenaphthalene. |
K036 | Toluene, phosphorodithioic and phosphorothioic acid esters. |
K037 | Toluene, phosphorodithioic and phosphorothioic acid esters. |
K038 | Phorate, formaldehyde, phosphorodithioic and phosphorothioic acid esters. |
K039 | Phosphorodithioic and phosphorothioic acid esters. |
K040 | Phorate, formaldehyde, phosphorodithioic and phosphorothioic acid esters. |
K041 | Toxaphene. |
K042 | Hexachlorobenzene, ortho-dichlorobenzene. |
K043 | 2,4-dichlorophenol, 2,6-dichlorophenol, 2,4,6-trichlorophenol. |
K044 | N.A. |
K045 | N.A. |
K046 | Lead. |
K047 | N.A. |
K048 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
K049 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
K050 | Hexavalent chromium. |
K051 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
K052 | Lead. |
K060 | Cyanide, napthalene, phenolic compounds, arsenic. |
K061 | Hexavalent chromium, lead, cadmium. |
K062 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
K069 | Hexavalent chromium, lead, cadmium. |
K071 | Mercury. |
K073 | Chloroform, carbon tetrachloride, hexachloroethane, trichloroethane, tetrachloroethylene, dichloroethylene, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane. |
K083 | Aniline, diphenylamine, nitrobenzene, phenylenediamine. |
K084 | Arsenic. |
K085 | Benzene, dichlorobenzenes, trichlorobenzenes, tetrachlorobenzenes, pentachlorobenzene, hexachlorobenzene, benzyl chloride. |
K086 | Lead, hexavalent chromium. |
K087 | Phenol, naphthalene. |
K088 | Cyanide (complexes). |
K093 | Phthalic anhydride, maleic anhydride. |
K094 | Phthalic anhydride. |
K095 | 1,1,2-trichloroethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloroethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane. |
K096 | 1,2-dichloroethane, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane. |
K097 | Chlordane, heptachlor. |
K098 | Toxaphene. |
K099 | 2,4-dichlorophenol, 2,4,6-trichlorophenol. |
K100 | Hexavalent chromium, lead, cadmium. |
K101 | Arsenic. |
K102 | Arsenic. |
K103 | Aniline, nitrobenzene, phenylenediamine. |
K104 | Aniline, benzene, diphenylamine, nitrobenzene, phenylenediamine. |
K105 | Benzene, monochlorobenzene, dichlorobenzenes, 2,4,6-trichlorophenol. |
K106 | Mercury. |
K107 | 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine (UDMH). |
K108 | 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine (UDMH). |
K109 | 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine (UDMH). |
K110 | 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine (UDMH). |
K111 | 2,4-Dinitrotoluene. |
K112 | 2,4-Toluenediamine, o-toluidine, p-toluidine, aniline. |
K113 | 2,4-Toluenediamine, o-toluidine, p-toluidine, aniline. |
K114 | 2,4-Toluenediamine, o-toluidine, p-toluidine. |
K115 | 2,4-Toluenediamine. |
K116 | Carbon tetrachloride, tetrachloroethylene, chloroform, phosgene. |
K117 | Ethylene dibromide. |
K118 | Ethylene dibromide. |
K123 | Ethylene thiourea. |
K124 | Ethylene thiourea. |
K125 | Ethylene thiourea. |
K126 | Ethylene thiourea. |
K131 | Dimethyl sulfate, methyl bromide. |
K132 | Methyl bromide. |
K136 | Ethylene dibromide. |
K141 | Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(k)fluoranthene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene. |
K142 | Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(k)fluoranthene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene. |
K143 | Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(k)fluoranthene. |
K144 | Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(k)fluoranthene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene. |
K145 | Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, naphthalene. |
K147 | Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(k)fluoranthene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene. |
K148 | Benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(k)fluoranthene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene. |
K149 | Benzotrichloride, benzyl chloride, chloroform, chloromethane, chlorobenzene, 1,4-dichlorobenzene, hexachlorobenzene, pentachlorobenzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachlorobenzene, toluene. |
K150 | Carbon tetrachloride, chloroform, chloromethane, 1,4-dichlorobenzene, hexachlorobenzene, pentachlorobenzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachlorobenzene, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane, tetrachloroethylene, 1,2,4-trichlorobenzene. |
K151 | Benzene, carbon tetrachloride, chloroform, hexachlorobenzene, pentachlorobenzene, toluene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachlorobenzene, tetrachloroethylene. |
K156 | Benomyl, carbaryl, carbendazim, carbofuran, carbosulfan, formaldehyde, methylene chloride, triethylamine. |
K157 | Carbon tetrachloride, formaldehyde, methyl chloride, methylene chloride, pyridine, triethylamine. |
K158 | Benomyl, carbendazim, carbofuran, carbosulfan, chloroform, methylene chloride. |
K159 | Benzene, butylate, eptc, molinate, pebulate, vernolate. |
K161 | Antimony, arsenic, metam-sodium, ziram. |
K169 | Benzene. |
K170 | Benzo(a)pyrene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, benzo (a) anthracene, benzo (b)fluoranthene, benzo(k)fluoranthene, 3-methylcholanthrene, 7, 12-dimethylbenz(a)anthracene. |
K171 | Benzene, arsenic. |
K172 | Benzene, arsenic. |
K174 | 1,2,3,4,6,7,8-Heptachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (1,2,3,4,6,7,8-HpCDD), 1,2,3,4,6,7,8-Heptachlorodibenzofuran (1,2,3,4,6,7,8-HpCDF), 1,2,3,4,7,8,9-Heptachlorodibenzofuran (1,2,3,6,7,8,9-HpCDF), HxCDDs (All Hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins), HxCDFs (All Hexachlorodibenzofurans), PeCDDs (All Pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins), OCDD (1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin, OCDF (1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachlorodibenzofuran), PeCDFs (All Pentachlorodibenzofurans), TCDDs (All tetrachlorodi-benzo-p-dioxins), TCDFs (All tetrachlorodibenzofurans). |
K175 | Mercury |
K176 | Arsenic, Lead. |
K177 | Antimony. |
K178 | Thallium. |
K181 | Aniline, o-anisidine, 4-chloroaniline, p-cresidine, 2,4-dimethylaniline, 1,2-phenylenediamine, 1,3-phenylenediamine. |
FOOTNOTE: N.A. -- Waste is hazardous because it fails the test for the characteristic of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity.
§ 261 Appendix VIII - Hazardous Constituents
Common name | Chemical abstracts name | Chemical abstracts No. | Hazardous waste No. |
A2213 | Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino) -N-hydroxy-2-oxo-, methyl ester | 30558-43-1 | U394 |
Acetonitrile | Same | 75-05-8 | U003 |
Acetophenone | Ethanone, 1-phenyl- | 98-86-2 | U004 |
2-Acetylaminefluarone | Acetamide, N-9H-fluoren-2-yl- | 53-96-3 | U005 |
Acetyl chloride | Same | 75-36-5 | U006 |
1-Acetyl-2-thiourea | Acetamide, N-(aminothioxomethyl)- | 591-08-2 | P002 |
Acrolein | 2-Propenal | 107-02-8 | P003 |
Acrylamide | 2-Propenamide | 79-06-1 | U007 |
Acrylonitrile | 2-Propenenitrile | 107-13-1 | U009 |
Aflatoxins | Same | 1402-68-2 | |
Aldicarb | Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxime | 116-06-3 | P070 |
Aldicarb sulfone | Propanal, 2-methyl-2- (methylsulfonyl) -, O-[(methylamino) carbonyl] oxime | 1646-88-4 | P203 |
Aldrin | 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta,5alpha,8alpha, 8abeta)- | 309-00-2 | P004 |
Allyl alcohol | 2-Propen-1-ol | 107-18-6 | P005 |
Allyl chloride | 1-Propane, 3-chloro | 107-05-1 | |
Aluminum phosphide | Same | 20859-73-8 | P006 |
4-Aminobiphenyl | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4-amine | 92-67-1 | |
5-(Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol | 3(2H)-Isoxazolone, 5-(aminomethyl)- | 2763-96-4 | P007 |
4-Aminopyridine | 4-Pyridinamine | 504-24-5 | P008 |
Amitrole | 1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine | 61-82-5 | U011 |
Ammonium vanadate | Vanadic acid, ammonium salt | 7803-55-6 | P119 |
Aniline | Benzenamine | 62-53-3 | U012 |
o-Anisidine (2-methoxyaniline) | Benzenamine, 2-Methoxy- | 90-04-0 | |
Antimony | Same | 7440-36-0 | |
Antimony compounds, N.O.S.1 | |||
Aramite | Sulfurous acid, 2-chloroethyl 2-[4-(1,1-dimethylethyl)phenoxy]-1-methylethyl ester | 140-57-8 | |
Arsenic | Same | 7440-38-2 | |
Arsenic compounds, N.O.S.1 | |||
Arsenic acid | Arsenic acid H3 AsO4 | 7778-39-4 | P010 |
Arsenic pentoxide | Arsenic oxide As2 O5 | 1303-28-2 | P011 |
Arsenic trioxide | Arsenic oxide As2 O3 | 1327-53-3 | P012 |
Auramine | Benzenamine, 4,4'-carbonimidoylbis[N,N-dimethyl | 492-80-8 | U014 |
Azaserine | L-Serine, diazoacetate (ester) | 115-02-6 | U015 |
Barban | Carbamic acid, (3-chlorophenyl) -, 4-chloro-2-butynyl ester | 101-27-9 | U280 |
Barium | Same | 7440-39-3 | |
Barium compounds, N.O.S.1 | |||
Barium cyanide | Same | 542-62-1 | P013 |
Bendiocarb | l,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-, methyl carbamate | 22781-23-3 | U278 |
Bendiocarb phenol | l,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-, | 22961-82-6 | U364 |
Benomyl | Carbamic acid, [1- [(butylamino) carbonyl]- lH-benzimidazol-2-yl] -, methyl ester | 17804- 35-2 | U271 |
Benz[c]acridine | Same | 225-51-4 | U016 |
B enz [a] anthracene | Same | 56-55-3 | U018 |
Benzal chloride | Benzene, (dichloromethyl)- | 98-87-3 | U017 |
Benzene | Same | 71-43-2 | U019 |
Benzenearsonic acid | Arsonic acid, phenyl- | 98-05-5 | |
Benzidine | [1,1 '-Biphenyl]-4,4 '-diamine | 92-87-5 | U021 |
Benzo[b]fluoranthene | B enz [e] acephenanthryl ene | 205-99-2 | |
B enzo [j] fluoranthene | Same | 205-82-3 | |
Benzo(k)fluoranthene | Same | 207-08-9 | |
Benzo[a]pyrene | Same | 50-32-8 | U022 |
p-Benzoquinone | 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-l,4-dione | 106-51-4 | U197 |
Benzotrichloride | Benzene, (trichloromethyl)- | 98-07-7 | U023 |
Benzyl chloride | Benzene, (chloromethyl)- | 100-44-7 | P028 |
Beryllium powder | Same | 7440-41-7 | P015 |
Beryllium compounds, N.O.S1 | |||
Bis(pentamethylene)-thiuram tetrasulfide | Piperidine, 1,1'- (tetrathi odi carb onothi oyl)-bis- | 120-54-7 | |
Bromoacetone | 2-Propanone, 1-bromo- | 598-31-2 | P017 |
Bromoform | Methane, tribromo- | 75-25-2 | U225 |
4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether | Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy- | 101-55-3 | U030 |
Brucine | Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxy- | 357-57-3 | P018 |
Butyl benzyl phthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, butyl phenylmethyl ester | 85-68-7 | |
Butylate | Carbamothioic acid, bis(2-methylpropyl)-, S-ethyl ester | 2008-41-5 | |
Cacodylic acid | Arsinic acid, dimethyl- | 75-60-5 | U136 |
Cadmium | Same | 7440-43-9 | |
Cadmium compounds, N.O.S.1 | |||
Calcium chromate | Chromic acid H2 CrO4, calcium salt | 13765-19-0 | U032 |
Calcium cyanide | Calcium cyanide Ca(CN)2 | 592-01-8 | P021 |
Carbaryl | 1-Naphthalenol, methylcarbamate | 63-25-2 | U279 |
Carbendazim | Carbamic acid, 1H-benzimidazol-2-yl, methyl ester | 10605-21-7 | U372 |
Carbofuran | 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate | 1563-66-2 | P127 |
Carbofuran phenol | 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl- | 1563-38-8 | U367 |
Carbon disulfide | Same | 75-15-0 | P022 |
Carbon oxyfluoride | Carbonic difluoride | 353-50-4 | U033 |
Carbon tetrachloride | Methane, tetrachloro- | 56-23-5 | U211 |
Carbosulfan | Carbamic acid, [(dibutylamino) thio] methyl-, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-7-benzofuranyl ester | 55285-14-8 | P189 |
Chloral | Acetaldehyde, trichloro- | 75-87-6 | U034 |
Chlorambucil | Benzenebutanoic acid, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]- | 305-03-3 | U035 |
Chlordane | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octachloro-2,3,3a,4,7,7a-hexahydro- | 57-74-9 | U036 |
Chlordane (alpha and gamma isomers) | U036 | ||
Chlorinated benzenes, N.O.S.1 | |||
Chlorinated ethane, N.O.S.1 | |||
Chlorinated fluorocarbons, N.O.S.1 | |||
Chlorinated naphthalene, | |||
N.O.S.1 | |||
Chlorinated phenol, N.O.S.1 | |||
Chlornaphazin | Naphthalenamine, N,N'-bis(2-chloroethyl)- | 494-03-1 | U026 |
Chloroacetaldehyde | Acetaldehyde, chloro- | 107-20-0 | P023 |
Chloroalkyl ethers, N.O.S.1 | |||
p-Chloroaniline | Benzenamine, 4-chloro- | 106-47-8 | P024 |
Chlorobenzene | Benzene, chloro- | 108-90-7 | U037 |
Chlorobenzilate | Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-alpha-(4-chlorophenyl)-alpha-hydroxy-, ethyl ester | 510-15-6 | U038 |
p-Chloro-m-cresol | Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl- | 59-50-7 | U039 |
2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether | Ethene, (2-chloroethoxy)- | 110-75-8 | U042 |
Chloroform | Methane, trichloro- | 67-66-3 | U044 |
Chloromethyl methyl ether | Methane, chloromethoxy- | 107-30-2 | U046 |
beta-Chloronaphthalene | Naphthalene, 2-chloro- | 91-58-7 | U047 |
o-Chlorophenol | Phenol, 2-chloro- | 95-57-8 | U048 |
1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea | Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)- | 5344-82-1 | P026 |
Chloroprene | 1,3-Butadiene, 2-chloro- | 126-99-8 | |
3-Chloropropionitrile | Propanenitrile, 3-chloro- | 542-76-7 | P027 |
Chromium | Same | 7440-47-3 | |
Chromium compounds, N.O.S.1 | |||
Chrysene | Same | 218-01-9 | U050 |
Citrus red No. 2 | 2-Naphthalenol, 1-[(2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)azo]- | 6358-53-8 | |
Coal tar creosote | Same | 8007-45-2 | |
Copper cyanide | Copper cyanide CuCN | 544-92-3 | P029 |
Copper dimethyldithiocarbamate | Copper, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S')-, | 137-29-1 | |
Creosote | Same | U051 | |
p-Cresidine | 2-Methoxy-5-methylbenzenamine | 120-71-8 | |
Cresol (Cresylic acid) | Phenol, methyl- | 1319-77-3 | U052 |
Crotonaldehyde | 2-Butenal | 4170-30-3 | U053 |
m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate | Phenol, 3-(methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate | 64-00-6 | P202 |
Cyanides (soluble salts and complexes) N.O.S.1 | P030 | ||
Cyanogen | Ethanedinitrile | 460-19-5 | P031 |
Cyanogen bromide | Cyanogen bromide (CN)Br | 506-68-3 | U246 |
Cyanogen chloride | Cyanogen chloride (CN)Cl | 506-77-4 | P033 |
Cycasin | beta-D-Glucopyranoside, (methyl-ONN-azoxy)methyl | 14901-08-7 | |
Cycloate | Carbamothioic acid, cyclohexylethyl-, S-ethyl ester | 1134-23-2 | |
2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol | Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro- | 131-89-5 | P034 |
Cyclophosphamide | 2H-1,3,2-Oxazaphosphorin-2-amine, N,N-bis(2-chloroethyl)tetrahydro-, 2-oxide | 50-18-0 | U058 |
2,4-D | Acetic acid, (2,4-dichlorophenoxy)- | 94-75-7 | U240 |
2,4-D, salts, esters | U240 | ||
Daunomycin | 5,12-Naphthacenedione, 8-acetyl-10-[(3-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy-alpha-L-lyxo-hexopyranosyl)oxy]-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy-, (8S-cis)- | 20830-81-3 | U059 |
Dazomet | 2H-1,3,5-thiadiazine-2-thione, tetrahydro-3,5-dimethyl | 533-74-4 | |
DDD | Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2-dichloroethylidene)bis[4-chloro- | 72-54-8 | U060 |
DDE | Benzene, 1,1'-(dichloroethenylidene)bis[4-chloro- | 72-55-9 | |
DDT | Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis[4-chloro- | 50-29-3 | U061 |
Diallate | Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3-dichloro-2-propenyl) ester | 2303-16-4 | U062 |
Dibenz[a,h]acridine | Same | 226-36-8 | |
Dibenz[a,j]acridine | Same | 224-42-0 | |
Dibenz[a,h]anthracene | Same | 53-70-3 | U063 |
7H-Dibenzo[c,g]carbazole | Same | 194-59-2 | |
Dibenzo[a,e]pyrene | Naphtho[1,2,3,4-def]chrysene | 192-65-4 | |
Dibenzo[a,h]pyrene | Dibenzo[b,def]chrysene | 189-64-0 | |
Dibenzo[a,i]pyrene | Benzo[rst]pentaphene | 189-55-9 | U064 |
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane | Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro- | 96-12-8 | U066 |
Dibutyl phthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester | 84-74-2 | U069 |
o-Dichlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,2-dichloro- | 95-50-1 | U070 |
m-Dichlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,3-dichloro- | 541-73-1 | U071 |
p-Dichlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,4-dichloro- | 106-46-7 | U072 |
Dichlorobenzene, N.O.S.1 | Benzene, dichloro- | 25321-22-6 | |
3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dichloro- | 91-94-1 | U073 |
1,4-Dichloro-2-butene | 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro- | 764-41-0 | U074 |
Dichlorodifluoromethane | Methane, dichlorodifluoro- | 75-71-8 | U075 |
Dichloroethylene, N.O.S.1 | Dichloroethylene | 25323-30-2 | |
1,1-Dichloroethylene | Ethene, 1,1-dichloro- | 75-35-4 | U078 |
1,2-Dichloroethylene | Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-, (E)- | 156-60-5 | U079 |
Dichloroethyl ether | Ethane, 1,1'oxybis[2-chloro- | 111-44-4 | U025 |
Dichloroisopropyl ether | Propane, 2,2'-oxybis[2-chloro- | 108-60-1 | U027 |
Dichloromethoxy ethane | Ethane, 1,1 '-[methylenebis(oxy)]bis[2-chloro- | 111-91-1 | U024 |
Dichloromethyl ether | Methane, oxybis[chloro- | 542-88-1 | P016 |
2,4-Dichlorophenol | Phenol, 2,4-dichloro- | 120-83-2 | U081 |
2,6-Dichlorophenol | Phenol, 2,6-dichloro- | 87-65-0 | U082 |
Dichlorophenylarsine | Arsonous dichloride, phenyl- | 696-28-6 | P036 |
Dichloropropane, N.O.S.1 | Propane, dichloro- | 26638- | |
19-7 | |||
Dichloropropanol, N.O.S.1 | Propanol, dichloro- | 26545-73-3 | |
Dichloropropene, N.O.S.1 | 1-Propene, dichloro- | 26952-23-8 | |
1,3-Dichloropropene | 1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro- | 542-75-6 | U084 |
Dieldrin | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha,2beta,2aalpha,3beta,6beta, 6aalpha,7beta,7aalpha)- | 60-57-1 | P037 |
1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane | 2,2'-Bioxirane | 1464-53-5 | U085 |
Diethylarsine | Arsine, diethyl- | 692-42-2 | P038 |
Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate | Ethanol, 2,2'-oxybis-, dicarbamate | 5952-26-1 | U395 |
1,4-Diethyleneoxide | 1,4-Dioxane | 123-91-1 | U108 |
Diethylhexyl phthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester | 117-81-7 | U028 |
N,N'-Diethylhydrazine | Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl- | 1615-80-1 | U086 |
O,O-Diethyl S-methyl dithiophosphate | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-methyl ester | 3288-58-2 | U087 |
Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate | Phosphoric acid, diethyl 4-nitrophenyl ester | 311-45-5 | P041 |
Diethyl phthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester | 84-66-2 | U088 |
O,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinylphosphoro-thioate | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester | 297-97-2 | P040 |
Diethylstilbesterol | Phenol, 4,4'-(1,2-diethyl-1,2-ethenediyl)bis-, (E)- | 56-53-1 | U089 |
Dihydrosafrole | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-propyl- | 94-58-6 | U090 |
Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP) | Phosphorofluoridic acid, bis(1-methylethyl) ester | 55-91-4 | P043 |
Dimethoate | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-[2-(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl] ester | 60-51-5 | P044 |
3,3'-Dimethoxybenzidine | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethoxy- | 119-90-4 | U091 |
p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene | Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)- | 60-11-7 | U093 |
2,4-Dimethylaniline (2,4-xylidine) | Benzenamine, 2,4-dimethyl- | 95-68-1 | |
7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]anthracene | Benz[a]anthracene, 7,12-dimethyl- | 57-97-6 | U094 |
3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethyl- | 119-93-7 | U095 |
Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride | Carbamic chloride, dimethyl- | 79-44-7 | U097 |
1,1-Dimethylhydrazine | Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl- | 57-14-7 | U098 |
1,2-Dimethylhydrazine | Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl- | 540-73-8 | U099 |
alpha,alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine | Benzeneethanamine, alpha,alpha-dimethyl- | 122-09-8 | P046 |
2,4-Dimethylphenol | Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl- | 105-67-9 | U101 |
Dimethyl phthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester | 131-11-3 | U102 |
Dimethyl sulfate | Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester | 77-78-1 | U103 |
Dimetilan | Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 1-[(dimethylamino) carbonyl]-5-methyl-1H-pyrazol-3-yl ester | 644-64-4 | P191 |
Dinitrobenzene, N.O.S.1 | Benzene, dinitro- | 25154-54-5 | |
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol | Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro- | 534-52-1 | P047 |
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol salts | P047 | ||
2,4-Dinitrophenol | Phenol, 2,4-dinitro- | 51-28-5 | P048 |
2,4-Dinitrotoluene | Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro- | 121-14-2 | U105 |
2,6-Dinitrotoluene | Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro- | 606-20-2 | U106 |
Dinoseb | Phenol, 2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitro- | 88-85-7 | P020 |
Di-n-octyl phthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dioctyl ester | 117-84-0 | U017 |
Diphenylamine | Benzenamine, N-phenyl- | 122-39-4 | |
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine | Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl- | 122-66-7 | U109 |
Di-n-propylnitrosamine | 1-Propanamine, N-nitroso-N-propyl- | 621-64-7 | U111 |
Disulfiram | Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide, tetraethyl | 97-77-8 | |
Disulfoton | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[2-(ethylthio)ethyl] ester | 298-04-4 | P039 |
Dithiobiuret | Thioimidodicarbonic diamide [(H2 N)C(S)]2 NH | 541-53-7 | P049 |
Endosulfan | 6,9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodioxathiepin, 6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-oxide | 115-29-7 | P050 |
Endothall | 7-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid | 145-73-3 | P088 |
Endrin | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octa-hydro-, (1aalpha,2beta,2abeta,3alpha,6alpha, 6abeta,7beta,7aalpha)- | 72-20-8 | P051 |
Endrin metabolites | P051 | ||
Epichlorohydrin | Oxirane, (chloromethyl)- | 106-89-8 | U041 |
Epinephrine | 1,2-Benzenediol, 4-[1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl]-, (R)- | 51-43-4 | P042 |
EPTC | Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-, S-ethyl ester | 759-94-4 | |
Ethyl carbamate (urethane) | Carbamic acid, ethyl ester | 51-79-6 | U238 |
Ethyl cyanide | Propanenitrile | 107-12-0 | P101 |
Ethyl Ziram | Zinc, bis(diethylcarbamodithioato-S,S')- | 14324-55-1 | |
Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid | Carbamodithioic acid, 1,2-ethanediylbis- | 111-54-6 | U114 |
Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid, salts and esters | U114 | ||
Ethylene dibromide | Ethane, 1,2-dibromo- | 106-93-4 | U067 |
Ethylene dichloride | Ethane, 1,2-dichloro- | 107-06-2 | U077 |
Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether | Ethanol, 2-ethoxy- | 110-80-5 | U359 |
Ethyleneimine | Aziridine | 151-56-4 | P054 |
Ethylene oxide | Oxirane | 75-21-8 | U115 |
Ethylenethiourea | 2-Imidazolidinethione | 96-45-7 | U116 |
Ethylidene dichloride | Ethane, 1,1-dichloro- | 75-34-3 | U076 |
Ethyl methacrylate | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester | 97-63-2 | U118 |
Ethyl methanesulfonate | Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester | 62-50-0 | U119 |
Famphur | Phosphorothioic acid, O-[4-[(dimethylamino)sulfonyl]phenyl] O,O-dimethyl ester | 52-85-7 | P097 |
Ferbam | Iron, tris(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S')- | 14484-64-1 | |
Fluoranthene | Same | 206-44-0 | U120 |
Fluorine | Same | 7782-41-4 | P056 |
Fluoroacetamide | Acetamide, 2-fluoro- | 640-19-7 | P057 |
Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt | Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt | 62-74-8 | P058 |
Formaldehyde | Same | 50-00-0 | U122 |
Formetanate hydrochloride | Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N'-[3-[[(methylamino) carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-, monohydrochloride | 23422-53-9 | P198 |
Formic acid | Same | 64-18-6 | U123 |
Formparanate | Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N'-[2- methyl-4-[[(methylamino) carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]- | 17702-57-7 | P197 |
Glycidylaldehyde | Oxiranecarboxyaldehyde | 765-34-4 | U126 |
Halomethanes, N.O.S.1 | |||
Heptachlor | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro- | 76-44-8 | P059 |
Heptachlor epoxide | 2,5-Methano-2H-indeno[1,2-b]oxirene, 2,3,4,5,6,7,7-heptachloro-1a,1b,5,5a,6,6a-hexa- hydro-, (1aalpha,1bbeta,2alpha,5alpha, 5abeta,6beta,6aalpha)- | 1024-57-3 | |
Heptachlor epoxide (alpha, beta, and gamma isomers) | |||
Heptachlorodibenzofurans | |||
Heptachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins | |||
Hexachlorobenzene | Benzene, hexachloro- | 118-74-1 | U127 |
Hexachlorobutadiene | 1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro- | 87-68-3 | U128 |
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene | 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro- | 77-47-4 | U130 |
Hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins | |||
Hexachlorodibenzofurans | |||
Hexachloroethane | Ethane, hexachloro- | 67-72-1 | U131 |
Hexachlorophene | Phenol, 2,2'-methylenebis[3,4,6-trichloro- | 70-30-4 | U132 |
Hexachloropropene | 1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-hexachloro- | 1888-71-7 | U243 |
Hexaethyl tetraphosphate | Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester | 757-58-4 | P062 |
Hydrazine | Same | 302-01-2 | U133 |
Hydrogen cyanide | Hydrocyanic acid | 74-90-8 | P063 |
Hydrogen fluoride | Hydrofluoric acid | 7664-39-3 | U134 |
Hydrogen sulfide | Hydrogen sulfide H2 S | 7783-06-4 | U135 |
Indeno[1,2,3-cd]pyrene | Same | 193-39-5 | U137 |
3-Iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate | Carbamic acid, butyl-, 3-iodo-2-propynyl ester | 55406-53-6 | |
Isobutyl alcohol | 1-Propanol, 2-methyl- | 78-83-1 | U140 |
Isodrin | 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta,5beta, 8beta,8abeta)- | 465-73-6 | P060 |
Isolan | Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 3-methyl-1-(1-methylethyl)-1H-pyrazol-5-yl ester | 119-38-0 | P192 |
Isosafrole | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-propenyl)- | 120-58-1 | U141 |
Kepone | 1,3,4-Metheno-2H-cyclobuta[cd]pentalen-2-one, 1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-decachlorooctahydro- | 143-50-0 | U142 |
Lasiocarpine | 2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-,7-[[2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy]methyl]-2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-1H-pyrrolizin-1-yl ester, [1S-[1alpha(Z),7(2S*,3R*),7aalpha]]- | 303-34-4 | U143 |
Lead | Same | 7439-92-1 | |
Lead compounds, N.O.S.1 | |||
Lead acetate | Acetic acid, lead(2 +) salt | 301-04-2 | U144 |
Lead phosphate | Phosphoric acid, lead(2 +) salt (2:3) | 7446-27-7 | U145 |
Lead subacetate | Lead, bis(acetato-O)tetrahydroxytri- | 1335-32-6 | U146 |
Lindane | Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-, (1alpha,2alpha,3beta,4alpha, 5alpha,6beta)- | 58-89-9 | U129 |
Maleic anhydride | 2,5-Furandione | 108-31-6 | U147 |
Maleic hydrazide | 3,6-Pyridazinedione, 1,2-dihydro- | 123-33-1 | U148 |
Malononitrile | Propanedinitrile | 109-77-3 | U149 |
Manganese dimethyldithiocarbamate | Manganese, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S')-, | 15339-36-3 | P196 |
Melphalan | L-Phenylalanine, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)aminol]- | 148-82-3 | U150 |
Mercury | Same | 7439-97-6 | U151 |
Mercury compounds, N.O.S.1 | |||
Mercury fulminate | Fulminic acid, mercury(2 +) salt | 628-86-4 | P065 |
Metam Sodium | Carbamodithioic acid, methyl-, monosodium salt | 137-42-8 | |
Methacrylonitrile | 2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl- | 126-98-7 | U152 |
Methapyrilene | 1,2-Ethanediamine, N,N-dimethyl-N'-2-pyridinyl-N'-(2-thienylmethyl)- | 91-80-5 | U155 |
Methiocarb | Phenol, (3,5-dimethyl-4-(methylthio)-, methylcarbamate | 2032-65-7 | P199 |
Methomyl | Ethanimidothioic acid, N-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]-, methyl ester | 16752-77-5 | P066 |
Methoxychlor | Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis[4-methoxy- | 72-43-5 | U247 |
Methyl bromide | Methane, bromo- | 74-83-9 | U029 |
Methyl chloride | Methane, chloro- | 74-87-3 | U045 |
Methyl chlorocarbonate | Carbonochloridic acid, methyl ester | 79-22-1 | U156 |
Methyl chloroform | Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro- | 71-55-6 | U226 |
3-Methylcholanthrene | Benz[j]aceanthrylene, 1,2-dihydro-3-methyl- | 56-49-5 | U157 |
4,4'-Methylenebis(2-chloroaniline) | Benzenamine, 4,4'-methylenebis[2-chloro- | 101-14-4 | U158 |
Methylene bromide | Methane, dibromo- | 74-95-3 | U068 |
Methylene chloride | Methane, dichloro- | 75-09-2 | U080 |
Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) | 2-Butanone | 78-93-3 | U159 |
Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide | 2-Butanone, peroxide | 1338-23-4 | U160 |
Methyl hydrazine | Hydrazine, methyl- | 60-34-4 | P068 |
Methyl iodide | Methane, iodo- | 74-88-4 | U138 |
Methyl isocyanate | Methane, isocyanato- | 624-83-9 | P064 |
2-Methyllactonitrile | Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-methyl- | 75-86-5 | P069 |
Methyl methacrylate | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester | 80-62-6 | U162 |
Methyl methanesulfonate | Methanesulfonic acid, methyl ester | 66-27-3 | |
Methyl parathion | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester | 298-00-0 | P071 |
Methylthiouracil | 4(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxo- | 56-04-2 | U164 |
Metolcarb | Carbamic acid, methyl-, 3-methylphenyl ester | 1129-41-5 | P190 |
Mexacarbate | Phenol, 4-(dimethylamino)-3,5-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester) | 315-18-4 | P128 |
Mitomycin C | Azirino[2',3':3,4]pyrrolo[1,2-a]indole-4,7-dione, 6-amino-8-[[(aminocarbonyl)oxy]methyl]-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-methoxy-5-methyl-, [1aS-(1aalpha,8beta,8aalpha,8balpha)]-. | 50-07-7 | U010 |
MNNG | Guanidine, N-methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitroso- | 70-25-7 | U163 |
Molinate | 1H-Azepine-1-carbothioic acid, hexahydro-, S-ethyl ester | 2212-67-1 | |
Mustard gas | Ethane, 1,1'-thiobis[2-chloro- | 505-60-2 | |
Naphthalene | Same | 91-20-3 | U165 |
1,4-Naphthoquinone | 1,4-Naphthalenedione | 130-15-4 | U166 |
alpha-Naphthylamine | 1-Naphthalenamine | 134-32-7 | U167 |
beta-Naphthylamine | 2-Naphthalenamine | 91-59-8 | U168 |
alpha-Naphthylthiourea | Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl- | 86-88-4 | P072 |
Nickel | Same | 7440-02-0 | |
Nickel compounds, N.O.S.1 | |||
Nickel carbonyl | Nickel carbonyl Ni(CO)4, (T-4)- | 13463-39-3 | P073 |
Nickel cyanide | Nickel cyanide Ni(CN)2 | 557-19-7 | P074 |
Nicotine | Pyridine, 3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, (S)- | 54-11-5 | P075 |
Nicotine salts | P075 | ||
Nitric oxide | Nitrogen oxide NO | 10102-43-9 | P076 |
p-Nitroaniline | Benzenamine, 4-nitro- | 100-01-6 | P077 |
Nitrobenzene | Benzene, nitro- | 98-95-3 | U169 |
Nitrogen dioxide | Nitrogen oxide NO2 | 10102-44-0 | P078 |
Nitrogen mustard | Ethanamine, 2-chloro-N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methyl- | 51-75-2 | |
Nitrogen mustard, hydrochloride salt | |||
Nitrogen mustard N-oxide | Ethanamine, 2-chloro-N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methyl-, N-oxide | 126-85-2 | |
Nitrogen mustard, N-oxide, hydro- chloride salt | |||
Nitroglycerin | 1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate | 55-63-0 | P081 |
p-Nitrophenol | Phenol, 4-nitro- | 100-02-7 | U170 |
2-Nitropropane | Propane, 2-nitro- | 79-46-9 | U171 |
Nitrosamines, N.O.S.1 | 35576-91-1 | ||
N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine | 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso- | 924-16-3 | U172 |
N-Nitrosodiethanolamine | Ethanol, 2,2'-(nitrosoimino)bis- | 1116-54-7 | U173 |
N-Nitrosodiethylamine | Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso- | 55-18-5 | U174 |
N-Nitrosodimethylamine | Methanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- | 62-75-9 | P082 |
N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea | Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitroso- | 759-73-9 | U176 |
N-Nitrosomethylethylamine | Ethanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- | 10595-95-6 | |
N-Nitroso-N-methylurea | Urea, N-methyl-N-nitroso- | 684-93-5 | U177 |
N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane | Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester | 615-53-2 | U178 |
N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine | Vinylamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- | 4549-40-0 | P084 |
N-Nitrosomorpholine | Morpholine, 4-nitroso- | 59-89-2 | |
N-Nitrosonornicotine | Pyridine, 3-(1-nitroso-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, (S)- | 16543-55-8 | |
N-Nitrosopiperidine | Piperidine, 1-nitroso- | 100-75-4 | U179 |
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine | Pyrrolidine, 1-nitroso- | 930-55-2 | U180 |
N-Nitrososarcosine | Glycine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- | 13256-22-9 | |
5-Nitro-o-toluidine | Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro- | 99-55-8 | U181 |
Octachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (OCDD) | 1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin | 3268-87-9 | |
Octachlorodibenzofuran (OCDF) | 1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachlorodibenofuran | 39001-02-0 | |
Octamethylpyrophosphoramide | Diphosphoramide, octamethyl- | 152-16-9 | P085 |
Osmium tetroxide | Osmium oxide OsO4, (T-4)- | 20816-12-0 | P087 |
Oxamyl | Ethanimidothioc acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]-2-oxo-, methyl ester | 23135-22-0 | P194 |
Paraldehyde | 1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl- | 123-63-7 | U182 |
Parathion | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester | 56-38-2 | P089 |
Pebulate | Carbamothioic acid, butylethyl-, S-propyl ester | 1114-71-2 | |
Pentachlorobenzene | Benzene, pentachloro- | 608-93-5 | U183 |
Pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins | |||
Pentachlorodibenzofurans | |||
Pentachloroethane | Ethane, pentachloro- | 76-01-7 | U184 |
Pentachloronitrobenzene (PCNB) | Benzene, pentachloronitro- | 82-68-8 | U185 |
Pentachlorophenol | Phenol, pentachloro- | 87-86-5 | See F027 |
Phenacetin | Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)- | 62-44-2 | U187 |
Phenol | Same | 108-95-2 | U188 |
1,2-Phenylenediamine | 1,2-Benzenediamine | 95-54-5 | |
1,3-Phenylenediamine | 1,3-Benzenediamine | 108-45-2 | |
Phenylenediamine | Benzenediamine | 25265-76-3 | |
Phenylmercury acetate | Mercury, (acetato-O)phenyl- | 62-38-4 | P092 |
Phenylthiourea | Thiourea, phenyl- | 103-85-5 | P093 |
Phosgene | Carbonic dichloride | 75-44-5 | P095 |
Phosphine | Same | 7803-51-2 | P096 |
Phorate | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[(ethylthio)methyl] ester | 298-02-2 | P094 |
Phthalic acid esters, N.O.S.1 | |||
Phthalic anhydride | 1,3-Isobenzofurandione | 85-44-9 | U190 |
Physostigmine | Pyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-01, 1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester), (3aS-cis)- | 57-47-6 | P204 |
Physostigmine salicylate | Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, compd. with (3aS-cis)-1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethylpyrrolo [2,3-b]indol-5-yl methylcarbamate ester (1:1) | 57-64-7 | P188 |
2-Picoline | Pyridine, 2-methyl- | 109-06-8 | U191 |
Polychlorinated biphenyls, N.O.S.1 | |||
Potassium cyanide | Potassium cyanide K(CN) | 151-50-8 | P098 |
Potassium dimethyldithiocarbamate | Carbamodithioic acid, dimethyl, potassium salt | 128-03-0 | |
Potassium n-hydroxymethyl-n-methyl-dithiocarbamate | Carbamodithioic acid, (hydroxymethyl)methyl-, monopotassium salt | 51026-28-9 | |
Potassium n-methyldithiocarbamate | Carbamodithioic acid, methyl-monopotassium salt | 137-41-7 | |
Potassium pentachlorophenate | Pentachlorophenol, potassium salt | 7778736 | None |
Potassium silver cyanide | Argentate(1-), bis(cyano-C)-, potassium | 506-61-6 | P099 |
Promecarb | Phenol, 3-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate | 2631-37-0 | P201 |
Pronamide | Benzamide, 3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl)- | 23950-58-5 | U192 |
1,3-Propane sultone | 1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide | 1120-71-4 | U193 |
n-Propylamine | 1-Propanamine | 107-10-8 | U194 |
Propargyl alcohol | 2-Propyn-1-ol | 107-19-7 | P102 |
Propham | Carbamic acid, phenyl-, 1-methylethyl ester | 122-42-9 | U373 |
Propoxur | Phenol, 2-(1-methylethoxy)-, methylcarbamate | 114-26-1 | U411 |
Propylene dichloride | Propane, 1,2-dichloro- | 78-87-5 | U083 |
1,2-Propylenimine | Aziridine, 2-methyl- | 75-55-8 | P067 |
Propylthiouracil | 4(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-propyl-2-thioxo- | 51-52-5 | |
Prosulfocarb | Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-, S-(phenylmethyl) ester | 52888-80-9 | U387 |
Pyridine | Same | 110-86-1 | U196 |
Reserpine | Yohimban-16-carboxylic acid, 11,17-dimethoxy-18-[(3,4,5-trimethoxybenzoyl)oxy]-smethyl ester, (3beta,16beta,17alpha,18beta,20alpha)- | 50-55-5 | U200 |
Resorcinol | 1,3-Benzenediol | 108-46-3 | U201 |
Safrole | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(2-propenyl)- | 94-59-7 | U203 |
Selenium | Same | 7782-49-2 | |
Selenium compounds, N.O.S.1 | |||
Selenium dioxide | Selenious acid | 7783-00-8 | U204 |
Selenium sulfide | Selenium sulfide SeS2 | 7488-56-4 | U205 |
Selenium, tetrakis(dimethyl-dithiocarbamate) | Carbamodithioic acid, dimethyl-, tetraanhydrosulfide with orthothioselenious acid | 144-34-3 | |
Selenourea | Same | 630-10-4 | P103 |
Silver | Same | 7440-22-4 | |
Silver compounds, N.O.S.1 | |||
Silver cyanide | Silver cyanide Ag(CN) | 506-64-9 | P104 |
Silvex (2,4,5-TP) | Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- | 93-72-1 | See F027 |
Sodium cyanide | Sodium cyanide Na(CN) | 143-33-9 | P106 |
Sodium dibutyldithiocarbamate | Carbamodithioic acid, dibutyl, sodium salt | 136-30-1 | |
Sodium diethyldithiocarbamate | Carbamodithioic acid, diethyl-, sodium salt | 148-18-5 | |
Sodium dimethyldithiocarbamate | Carbamodithioic acid, dimethyl-, sodium salt | 128-04-1 | |
Sodium pentachlorophenate | Pentachlorophenol, sodium salt | 131522 | None |
Streptozotocin | D-Glucose, 2-deoxy-2-[[(methylnitrosoamino)carbonyl]amino]- | 18883-66-4 | U206 |
Strychnine | Strychnidin-10-one | 57-24-9 | P108 |
Strychnine salts | P108 | ||
Sulfallate | Carbamodithioic acid, diethyl-, 2-chloro-2-propenyl ester | 95-06-7 | |
TCDD | Dibenzo[b,e][1,4]dioxin, 2,3,7,8-tetrachloro- | 1746-01-6 | |
Tetrabutylthiuram disulfide | Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide, tetrabutyl | 1634-02-2 | |
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro- | 95-94-3 | U207 |
Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins | |||
Tetrachlorodibenzofurans | |||
Tetrachloroethane, N.O.S.1 | Ethane, tetrachloro-, N.O.S. | 25322-20-7 | |
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane | Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro- | 630-20-6 | U208 |
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane | Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro- | 79-34-5 | U209 |
Tetrachloroethylene | Ethene, tetrachloro- | 127-18-4 | U210 |
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol | Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro- | 58-90-2 | See F027 |
2,3,4,6-tetrachlorophenol, potassium salt | same | 53535276 | None |
2,3,4,6-tetrachlorophenol, sodium salt | same | 25567559 | None |
Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate | Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester | 3689-24-5 | P109 |
Tetraethyl lead | Plumbane, tetraethyl- | 78-00-2 | P110 |
Tetraethyl pyrophosphate | Diphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester | 107-49-3 | P111 |
Tetramethylthiuram monosulfide | Bis(dimethylthiocarbamoyl) sulfide | 97-74-5 | |
Tetranitromethane | Methane, tetranitro- | 509-14-8 | P112 |
Thallium | Same | 7440-28-0 | |
Thallium compounds, N.O.S.1 | |||
Thallic oxide | Thallium oxide Tl2 O3 | 1314-32-5 | P113 |
Thallium(I) acetate | Acetic acid, thallium(1 +) salt | 563-68-8 | U214 |
Thallium(I) carbonate | Carbonic acid, dithallium(1 +) salt | 6533-73-9 | U215 |
Thallium(I) chloride | Thallium chloride TlCl | 7791-12-0 | U216 |
Thallium(I) nitrate | Nitric acid, thallium(1 +) salt | 10102-45-1 | U217 |
Thallium selenite | Selenious acid, dithallium(1 +) salt | 12039-52-0 | P114 |
Thallium(I) sulfate | Sulfuric acid, dithallium(1 +) salt | 7446-18-6 | P115 |
Thioacetamide | Ethanethioamide | 62-55-5 | U218 |
Thiodicarb | Ethanimidothioic acid, N,N'-[thiobis [(methylimino) carbonyloxy]] bis-, dimethyl ester | 59669-26-0 | U410 |
Thiofanox | 2-Butanone, 3,3-dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-, 0-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime | 39196-18-4 | P045 |
Thiomethanol | Methanethiol | 74-93-1 | U153 |
Thiophanate-methyl | Carbamic acid, [1,2-phyenylenebis (iminocarbonothioyl)] bis-, dimethyl ester | 23564-05-8 | U409 |
Thiophenol | Benzenethiol | 108-98-5 | P014 |
Thiosemicarbazide | Hydrazinecarbothioamide | 79-19-6 | P116 |
Thiourea | Same | 62-56-6 | U219 |
Thiram | Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide [(H2 N)C(S)]2 S2, tetramethyl- | 137-26-8 | U244 |
Tirpate | 1,3-Dithiolane-2-carboxaldehyde, 2,4-dimethyl-, O-[(methylamino) carbonyl] oxime | 26419-73-8 | P185 |
Toluene | Benzene, methyl- | 108-88-3 | U220 |
Toluenediamine | Benzenediamine, ar-methyl- | 25376-45-8 | U221 |
Toluene-2,4-diamine | 1,3-Benzenediamine, 4-methyl- | 95-80-7 | |
Toluene-2,6-diamine | 1,3-Benzenediamine, 2-methyl- | 823-40-5 | |
Toluene-3,4-diamine | 1,2-Benzenediamine, 4-methyl- | 496-72-0 | |
Toluene diisocyanate | Benzene, 1,3-diisocyanatomethyl- | 26471-62-5 | U223 |
o-Toluidine | Benzenamine, 2-methyl- | 95-53-4 | U328 |
o-Toluidine hydrochloride | Benzenamine, 2-methyl-, hydrochloride | 636-21-5 | U222 |
p-Toluidine | Benzenamine, 4-methyl- | 106-49-0 | U353 |
Toxaphene | Same | 8001-35-2 | P123 |
Triallate | Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3,3-trichloro-2-propenyl) ester | 2303-17-5 | U389 |
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,2,4-trichloro- | 120-82-1 | |
1,1,2-Trichloroethane | Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro- | 79-00-5 | U227 |
Trichloroethylene | Ethene, trichloro- | 79-01-6 | U228 |
Trichloromethanethiol | Methanethiol, trichloro- | 75-70-7 | P118 |
Trichloromonofluoromethane | Methane, trichlorofluoro- | 75-69-4 | U121 |
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol | Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro- | 95-95-4 | See F027 |
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol | Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro- | 88-06-2 | See F027 |
2,4,5-T | Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- | 93-76-5 | See F027 |
Trichloropropane, N.O.S.1 | 25735-29-9 | ||
1,2,3-Trichloropropane | Propane, 1,2,3-trichloro- | 96-18-4 | |
Triethylamine | Ethanamine, N,N-diethyl- | 121-44-8 | U404 |
O,O,O-Triethyl phosphorothioate | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O,O-triethyl ester | 126-68-1 | |
1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene | Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro- | 99-35-4 | U234 |
Tris(1-aziridinyl)phosphine sulfide | Aziridine, 1,1',1″-phosphinothioylidynetris- | 52-24-4 | |
Tris(2,3-dibromopropyl) phosphate | 1-Propanol, 2,3-dibromo-, phosphate (3:1) | 126-72-7 | U235 |
Trypan blue | 2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic acid, 3,3'- [(3,3'-dimethyl[1,1'-biphenyl]-4,4'- diyl)bis(azo)]- bis[5-amino-4-hydroxy-, tetrasodium salt. | 72-57-1 | U236 |
Uracil mustard | 2,4-(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione, 5-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]- | 66-75-1 | U237 |
Vanadium pentoxide | Vanadium oxide V2 O5 | 1314-62-1 | P120 |
Vernolate | Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-,S-propyl ester | 1929-77-7 | |
Vinyl chloride | Ethene, chloro- | 75-01-4 | U043 |
Warfarin | 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, when present at concentrations less than 0.3% | 81-81-2 | U248 |
Warfarin | 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% | 81-81-2 | P001 |
Warfarin salts, when present at concentrations less than 0.3% | U248 | ||
Warfarin salts, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% | P001 | ||
Zinc cyanide | Zinc cyanide Zn(CN)2 | 557-21-1 | P121 |
Zinc phosphide | Zinc phosphide Zn3 P2, when present at concentrations greater than 10% | 1314-84-7 | P122 |
Zinc phosphide | Zinc phosphide Zn3 P2, when present at concentrations of 10% or less | 1314-84-7 | U249 |
Ziram | ZInc, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S')-, (T-4)- | 137-30-4 | P205 |
FOOTNOTE: 1The abbreviation N.O.S. (not otherwise specified) signifies those members of the general class not specifically listed by name in this appendix
Section 261
Appendix IX - Wastes Excluded Under §§ 260.20 and 260.22
Table 1 - Wastes Excluded From Non-Specific Sources
Facility
Division of Environmental Quality.
Vertac Superfund site, Jacksonville, Arkansas.
Kiln ash, cyclone ash, and calcium chloride salts from incineration of residues (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F020 and F023) generated from the primary production of 2,4,5-T and 2,4-D after August 24, 1990. This one-time exclusion applies only to the incineration of the waste materials described in the petition, and it is conditional upon the data obtained from DEQ's full-scale incineration facility. To ensure that hazardous constituents are not present in the waste at levels of regulatory concern once the full-scale treatment facility is in operation, DEQ must implement a testing program for the petitioned waste. This testing program must meet the following conditions for the exclusion to be valid:
Prior to disposal of the residues from each weekly sampling period, the weekly composites must be analyzed for all of the constituents listed in Condition (3). The analytical data, including quality control information, must be compiled and maintained on site for a minimum of three years. These data must be furnished upon request and made available for inspection by any employee or representative of EPA.
If the composite incineration residue samples (from either Condition (1)(A) or Condition (1)(B) do not exceed any of the delisting levels set in Condition (3), the incineration residues corresponding to these samples may be managed and disposed of in accordance with all applicable solid waste rules.
If any composite incineration residue sample exceeds any of the delisting levels set in Condition (3), the incineration residues generated during the time period corresponding to this sample must be retreated until they meet these levels (analyses must be repeated) or managed and disposed of in accordance with subtitle C of RCRA. Incineration residues which are generated but for which analysis is not complete or valid must be managed and disposed of in accordance with subtitle C of RCRA, until valid analyses demonstrate that the wastes meet the delisting levels.
The petitioned by-product must be analyzed for the tetra-, penta-, hexa-, and heptachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins, and the tetra-, penta-, hexa-, and heptachlorodibenzofurans to determine the 2, 3, 7, 8-tetra- chlorodibenzo-p-dioxin equivalent concentration. The analysis must be conducted using a measurement system that achieves practical quantitation limits of 15 parts per trillion (ppt) for the tetra- and penta-homologs, and 37 ppt for the hexa- and hepta-homologs.
"Under civil and criminal penalty of law for the making or submission of false or fraudulent statements or representations (pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Federal Code, which include, but may not be limited to, 18 U.S.C. 1001 and 42 U.S.C. 6928), I certify that the information contained in or accompanying this document is true, accurate and complete. As to the (those) identified section(s) of this document for which I cannot personally verify its (their) truth and accuracy, I certify as the company official having supervisory responsibility for the persons who, acting under my direct instructions, made the verification that this information is true accurate and complete. In the event that any of this information is determined by EPA in its sole discretion to be false, inaccurate or incomplete, and upon conveyance of this fact to the company, I recognize and agree that this exclusion of wastes will be void as if it never had effect or to the extent directed by EPA and that the company will be liable for any actions taken in contravention of the company's RCRA and CERCLA obligations premised upon the company's reliance on the void exclusion."
Chamberlain-Featherlite, Inc.
Hot Springs, AR
Dewatered wastewater treatment sludges (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F019) generated from the chemical conversion coating of aluminum after July 16, 1986.
Kawneer Company, Incorporated.
Springdale, Arkansas
Wastewater treatment filter press sludge (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F019) generated (at a maximum annual rate of 26 cubic yards) from the chemical conversion coating of aluminum. This exclusion was published on November 13, 1990. Kawneer must analyze a representative sample, obtained by a full depth core sample from each 55 gallon drum of filter press sludge generated, prior to disposal of the wastes as nonhazardous. Each lot of filter press sludge wastes shipped for disposal shall e analyzed. Samples from each frum may be composited for each lof of filter press sludge to be disposed of. Analysis shall be conducted for total cyanide and chromium (VI). Provided that total cyanide conentraion in the waste is less than 0.7 ug/kg and chromium (VI) is less than 0.5 ug/kg, the wastes may be disposed of an nonhazardous under the provisions of this delisting exclusion.
Monroe Auto Equipment.
Paragould, AR
Wastewater treatment sludge (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F006) generated from electroplating operations after vacuum filtration after November 27,1985. This exclusion does not apply to the sludge contained in the on-site impoundment.
U.S. EPA Combustion Research Facility.
Jefferson, Arkansas
One-time exclusion for scrubber water (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F020) generated in 1985 from the incineration of Vertac still bottoms. This exclusion was published on June 28, 1989.
Waterloo Industries.
Pocahontas, AR
Wastewater treatment sludges (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F006) generated from electroplating operations after dewatering and held on-site on July 17, 1986 and any such sludge generated (after dewatering) after July 17, 1986.
Bekaert Steel Corporation
Rogers, Arkansas
Wastewater treatment sludge (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F006) generated from electroplating operations (at a maximum annual rate of 1250 cubic yards to be measured on a calendar year basis) after February 28, 1997. In order to confirm that the characteristics of the waste do not change significantly, the facility must, on an annual basis, before July 1 of each year, analyze a representative composite sample for the constituents listed in §261.24 as well as antimony, copper, nickel, and zinc using the method specified therein. The annual analytical results, including quality control information, must be compiled, certified according to § 260.22(i)(12) of this rule, maintained on site for a minimum of five years, and made available for inspection upon request of any employee or representative of EPA or the State of Arkansas. Failure to maintain the required documents on site will be considered by the Division and/or EPA, at their discretion, sufficient basis to revoke this exclusion to the extent directed.
Tenneco Automotive.
Paragould, AR
Stabilized sludge from electroplating operations, excavated from the Finch Road Landfill and currently stored in containment cells by Tenneco (EPA Hazardous Waste Nos. F006). This is a one-time exclusion for 1,800 cubic yards of stabilized sludge when it is disposed of in a Subtitle D landfill. This exclusion was published on August 9, 2001.
Tokusen, USA Inc
Conway, AR
Wastewater Treatment Sludge (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F006) generated at a maximum annual rate of 2,000 cubic yards per calendar year after [Insert date of Commission adoption of this revision] to be disposed of in a Subtitle D landfill. For the exclusion to be valid, Tokusen must implement a verification testing program that meets the following paragraphs:
Tokusen can manage and dispose of the WWTP sludge according to all applicable solid waste rules. After the first year of sampling events, one (1) verification sampling test can be performed on two (2) annual samples of the waste treatment sludge. The results are to be compared to the Delisting Levels in paragraph (1).
As to the (those) identified section(s) of this document for which I can not personally verify its (their) truth and accuracy I certify as the company official having supervisory responsibility for the persons who, acting under my direct instructions, made the verification that this information is true, accurate and complete. If any of this information is determined by EPA in its sole discretion to be false, inaccurate or incomplete, and upon conveyance of this fact to the company, I recognize and agree that this exclusion of waste will be void as if it never had effect or to the extent directed by EPA and that the company will be liable for any actions taken in contravention of the company's RCRA and CERCLA obligations premised upon the company's reliance on the void exclusion.
As used in this section:
"Condition for exemption" to mean: any requirement in §§ 262.14, 262.15, 262.16, 262.17, 262.70, or subsection K or subsection L of this section that states an event, action, or standard that must occur or be met in order to obtain an exemption from any applicable requirement in 40 CFR Part 124 and sections 264 through 268, and 270 of this rule, or from any requirement for notification under section 3010 of RCRA.
"Independent requirement" to mean: a requirement of section 262 that states an event, action, or standard that must occur or be met; and that applies without relation to, or irrespective of, the purpose of obtaining a conditional exemption from storage facility permit, interim status, and operating requirements under §§ 262.14, 262.15, 262.16, 262.17, or subsection K or subsection L of this section.
Note 1: The provisions of § 262.34 are applicable to the on-site accumulation of hazardous waste by generators. Therefore, the provisions of § 262.34 only apply to owners or operators who are shipping hazardous waste which they generated at that facility.
Note 2: A generator who treats, stores, or disposes of hazardous waste on-site must comply with the applicable standards and permit requirements set forth in §§ 264, 265, 266, and 270.
A person who generates a solid waste, as defined in § 261.2, must make an accurate determination as to whether that waste is a hazardous waste in order to ensure wastes are properly managed according to applicable RCRA rules. A hazardous waste determination is made using the following steps:
Note: Even if the waste is listed, the generator still has an opportunity under § 260.22 to demonstrate to the Director and the EPA Administrator that the waste from his particular facility or operation is not a hazardous waste.
A generator must determine its generator category. A generator's category is based on the amount of hazardous waste generated each month and may change from month to month. This section sets forth procedures to determine whether a generator is a very small quantity generator, a small quantity generator, or a large quantity generator for a particular month, as defined in §260.10 of this chapter.
Table 1 to §262.13-GENERATOR CATEGORIES BASED ON QUANTITY OF WASTE GENERATED IN A CALENDAR MONTH
Quantity of acute hazardous waste generated in a calendar month | Quantity of non-acute hazardous waste generated in a calendar month | Quantity of residues from a cleanup of acute hazardous waste generated in a calendar month | Generator category |
> 1 kg | Any amount | Any amount | Large quantity generator. |
Any amount | >= 1,000 kg | Any amount | Large quantity generator. |
Any amount | Any amount | >100 kg | Large quantity generator. |
<= 1 kg | > 100 kg and < 1,000 kg | <= 100 kg | Small quantity generator. |
<= 1 kg | <= 100 kg | <= 100 kg | Very small quantity generator. |
A small quantity generator may accumulate hazardous waste on site without a permit or interim status, and without complying with the requirements of 40 CFR part 124, and sections 264 through 267, and 270 of this rule, or the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA, provided that all the conditions for exemption listed in this section are met:
A large quantity generator may accumulate hazardous waste on site without a permit or interim status, and without complying with the requirements of 40 CFR part124, and sections 264 through 267, and 270 of this rule, or the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA, provided that all of the following conditions for exemption are met:
If the waste accumulation unit is subsequently reopened, the generator may remove the notice from the operating record.
The manifest consists of at least the number of copies which will provide the generator, each transporter, and the owner or operator of the designated facility with one copy each for their records and another copy to be returned to the generator.
Note: See § 263.20(e) and (f) for special provisions for rail or water (bulk shipment) transporters.
Electronic signature methods for the e-Manifest system shall:
A generator who initiates a shipment of hazardous waste must certify to one of the following statements in Item 15 of the uniform hazardous waste manifest:
Before transporting hazardous waste or offering hazardous waste for transportation off-site, a generator must package the waste in accordance with the applicable Department of Transportation regulations on packaging under 49 CFR Parts 173, 178, and 179.
Before transporting or offering hazardous waste for transportation off-site, a generator must label each package in accordance with the applicable Department of Transportation regulations on hazardous materials under 49 CFR Part 172.
Before transporting hazardous waste or offering hazardous waste for transportation off-site, a generator must placard or offer the initial transporter the appropriate placards according to Department of Transportation regulations for hazardous materials under 49 CFR part 172, Subsection F.
The placement of bulk or non-containerized liquid hazardous waste or hazardous waste containing free liquids (whether or not sorbents have been added) in any landfill is prohibited. Prior to disposal in a hazardous waste landfill, liquids must meet additional requirements as specified in §§264.314 and 265.314.
Any person who generated more than 100kg of hazardous waste in any given month during the preceding calendar year in the State of Arkansas must prepare and submit a single copy of an Annual Report to the Director not later than March 1 of each year. The Annual Report must be submitted on forms or in an electronic format furnished or approved by the Division and in accordance with the annual instruction booklet provided by the Division. This requirement also applies to large quantity generators that receive hazardous waste from very small quantity generators pursuant to§262.17(f). The report must cover generator activities during the previous calendar year, and include, at a minimum, the following information:
Note: The submission to the Division need only be a handwritten or typed note on the manifest itself, or on an attached sheet of paper, stating that the return copy was not received.
The Director, as he deems necessary, may require generators to furnish additional reports concerning the quantities and disposition of wastes identified or listed in § 261.
A farmer disposing of waste pesticides from his own use which are hazardous wastes is not required to comply with the standards in this section or other standards in §§ 264, 265, 266, or 270 for those wastes provided he triple rinses each emptied pesticide container in accordance with § 261.7(b)(3) and disposes of the pesticide residues on his own farm in a manner consistent with the disposal instructions on the pesticide label.
In addition to the definitions set forth at § 260.10 of this rule, the following definitions apply to this subsection.
"Competent authority" means the regulatory authority or authorities of concerned countries having jurisdiction over trans-boundary movements of wastes.
"Countries concerned" means the countries of export or import and any countries of transit.
"Country of export" means any country from which a transboundary movement of hazardous wastes is planned to be initiated or is initiated.
"Country of import" means any country to which a transboundary movement of hazardous wastes is planned or takes place for the purpose of submitting the wastes to recovery or disposal operations therein.
"Country of transit" means any country other than the country of export or country of import across which a transboundary movement of hazardous wastes is planned or takes place.
"Disposal operations" means activities which do not lead to the possibility of resource recovery, recycling, reclamation, direct re-use or alternate uses, which include:
"EPA Acknowledgment of Consent" (AOC) means the letter EPA sends to the exporter documenting the specific terms of the country of import's consent and the country(ies) of transit's consent(s). The AOC meets the definition of an export license in U.S. Census Bureau regulations 15 CFR 30.1.
"Export" means the transportation of hazardous waste from a location under the jurisdiction of the United States to a location under the jurisdiction of another country, or a location not under the jurisdiction of any country, for the purposes of recovery or disposal operations therein.
"Exporter" also known as primary exporter on the RCRA hazardous waste manifest, means the person domiciled in the United States who is required to originate the movement document in accordance with § 262.83(d) or the manifest for a shipment of hazardous waste in accordance with subsection B of this section, or equivalent State provision, which specifies a foreign receiving facility as the facility to which the hazardous wastes will be sent, or any recognized trader who proposes export of the hazardous wastes for recovery or disposal operations in the country of import.
"Foreign exporter" means the person under the jurisdiction of the country of export who has, or will have at the time the planned transboundary movement commences, possession or other forms of legal control of the hazardous wastes and who proposes shipment of the hazardous wastes to the United States for recovery or disposal operations.
"Foreign importer" means the person to whom possession or other form of legal control of the hazardous waste is assigned at the time the exported hazardous waste is received in the country of import.
"Foreign receiving facility" means a facility which, under the importing country's applicable domestic law, is operating or is authorized to operate in the country of import to receive the hazardous wastes and to perform recovery or disposal operations on them.
"Import" means the transportation of hazardous waste from a location under the jurisdiction of another country to a location under the jurisdiction of the United States for the purposes of recovery or disposal operations therein.
"Importer" means the person to whom possession or other form of legal control of the hazardous waste is assigned at the time the imported hazardous waste is received in the United States.
"OECD" means the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development.
"OECD area" means all land or marine areas under the national jurisdiction of any OECD member country. When the rules refer to shipments to or from an OECD member country, this means "OECD area."
"OECD Member country" means the countries that are members of the OECD and participate in the Amended 2001 OECD Decision. (EPA provides a list of OECD Member countries at https://www.epa.gov/hwgenerators/international-agreements-transboundary-shipments-waste).
"Recognized trader" means a person who, with appropriate authorization of concerned countries, acts in the role of principal to purchase and subsequently sell wastes; this person has legal control of such wastes from time of purchase to time of sale; such a person may act to arrange and facilitate trans-boundary movements of wastes destined for recovery operations.
"Receiving facility" means a U.S. facility which, under RCRA and other applicable domestic laws, is operating or is authorized to operate to receive hazardous wastes and to perform recovery or disposal operations on them.
"Recovery operations" means activities leading to resource recovery, recycling, reclamation, direct re-use or alternative uses, which include:
"Transboundary movement" means any movement of hazardous wastes from an area under the national jurisdiction of one country to an area under the national jurisdiction of another country.
Note to Paragraph (a)(2): Some Amber list wastes are not listed or otherwise identified as hazardous under RCRA, and therefore are not subject to the requirements of this section. Regardless of the status of the waste under RCRA, however, other Federal environmental statutes (e.g., the Toxic Substances Control Act) restrict certain waste imports or exports. Such restrictions continue to apply with regard to this section.
Note to Paragraph (a)(3)(i): The regulated community should note that some countries may require, by domestic law, that mixtures of different Green wastes be subject to the Amber control procedures.
Note to Paragraph (a)(3)(ii): The regulated community should note that some countries may require, by domestic law, that a mixture of a Green waste and more than a de minimis amount of an Amber waste or a mixture of two or more Amber wastes be subject to the Amber control procedures.
Note to Paragraph (b)(2): These international agreements include, but are not limited to, the Chicago Convention (1944), ADR (1957), ADNR (1970), MARPOL Convention (1973/1978), SOLAS Convention (1974), IMDG Code (1985), COTIF (1985), and RID (1985).
I certify that the above information is complete and correct to the best of my knowledge. I also certify that legally enforceable written contractual obligations have been entered into and that any applicable insurance or other financial guarantee is or shall be in force covering the transboundary movement.
Name:
Signature:
Date:
Note to Paragraph (f)(7): Financial guarantees so required are intended to provide for alternate recycling, disposal or other means of sound management of the wastes in cases where arrangements for the shipment and the recovery operations cannot be carried out as foreseen. The United States does not require such financial guarantees at this time; however, some OECD Member countries and other foreign countries do. It is the responsibility of the exporter to ascertain and comply with such requirements; in some cases, persons or facilities located in those OECD Member countries or other foreign countries may refuse to enter into the necessary contracts absent specific references or certifications to financial guarantees.
I certify that the above information is complete and correct to the best of my knowledge. I also certify that legally enforceable written contractual obligations have been entered into and that any applicable insurance or other financial guarantee is or shall be in force covering the transboundary movement.
Name:
Signature:
Date:
Note to Paragrah (b)(1)(xiii): The United States does not currently require financial assurance for these waste shipments.
Note to Paragraph (f)(6): Financial guarantees so required are intended to provide for alternate recycling, disposal or other means of sound management of the wastes in cases where arrangements for the shipment and the recovery operations cannot be carried out as foreseen. The United States does not require such financial guarantees at this time; however, some OECD Member countries or other foreign countries do. It is the responsibility of the importer to ascertain and comply with such requirements; in some cases, persons or facilities located in those countries may refuse to enter into the necessary contracts absent specific references or certifications to financial guarantees.
The following definitions apply to this subsection:
"College/University" means a private or public, post-secondary, degree-granting, academic institution, that is accredited by an accrediting agency listed annually by the U.S. Department of Education.
"Eligible academic entity" means a college or university, or a non-profit research institute that is owned by or has a formal written affiliation agreement with a college or university, or a teaching hospital that is owned by or has a formal written affiliation agreement with a college or university.
"Formal written affiliation agreement for a non-profit research institute" means a written document that establishes a relationship between institutions for the purposes of research and/or education and is signed by authorized representatives, as defined by § 260.10 of this rule, from each institution. A relationship on a project-by-project or grant-by-grant basis is not considered a formal written affiliation agreement. A "formal written affiliation agreement for a teaching hospital" means a master affiliation agreement and program letter of agreement, as defined by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education, with an accredited medical program or medical school.
"Laboratory" means an area owned by an eligible academic entity where relatively small quantities of chemicals and other substances are used on a non-production basis for teaching or research (or diagnostic purposes at a teaching hospital) and are stored and used in containers that are easily manipulated by one person. Photo laboratories, art studios, and field laboratories are considered laboratories. Areas such as chemical stockrooms and preparatory laboratories that provide a support function to teaching or research laboratories (or diagnostic laboratories at teaching hospitals) are also considered laboratories.
"Laboratory clean-out" means an evaluation of the inventory of chemicals and other materials in a laboratory that are no longer needed or that have expired and the subsequent removal of those chemicals or other unwanted materials from the laboratory. A clean-out may occur for several reasons. It may be on a routine basis (e.g., at the end of a semester or academic year) or as a result of a renovation, relocation, or change in laboratory supervisor/occupant. A regularly scheduled removal of unwanted material as required by § 262.208 of this rule does not qualify as a laboratory clean-out.
"Laboratory worker" means a person who handles chemicals and/or unwanted material in a laboratory and may include, but is not limited to, faculty, staff, post-doctoral fellows, interns, researchers, technicians, supervisors/managers, and principal investigators. A person does not need to be paid or otherwise compensated for his/her work in the laboratory to be considered a laboratory worker. Undergraduate and graduate students in a supervised classroom setting are not laboratory workers.
"Non-profit research institute" means an organization that conducts research as its primary function and files as a non-profit organization under the tax code of 26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3).
"Reactive acutely hazardous unwanted material" means an unwanted material that is one of the acutely hazardous commercial chemical products listed in § 261.33(e) for reactivity.
"Teaching hospital" means a hospital that trains students to become physicians, nurses or other health or laboratory personnel.
"Trained professional" means a person who has completed the applicable RCRA training requirements of § 262.17for large quantity generators, or is knowledgeable about normal operations and emergencies in accordance with § 262.16 for small quantity generators and very small quantity generators. A trained professional may be an employee of the eligible academic entity or may be a contractor or vendor who meets the requisite training requirements.
"Unwanted material" means any chemical, mixtures of chemicals, products of experiments or other material from a laboratory that is no longer needed, wanted or usable in the laboratory and that is destined for hazardous waste determination by a trained professional. Unwanted materials include reactive acutely hazardous unwanted materials and materials that may eventually be determined not to be solid waste pursuant to § 261.2, or a hazardous waste pursuant to § 261.3. If an eligible academic entity elects to use another equally effective term in lieu of "unwanted material," as allowed by § 262.206(a)(1)(i), the equally effective term has the same meaning and is subject to the same requirements as "unwanted material" under this subpart.
"Working container" means a small container (i.e., two gallons or less) that is in use at a laboratory bench, hood, or other work station, to collect unwanted material from a laboratory experiment or procedure.
An eligible academic entity that chooses to be subject to this Subsection is not required to have interim status or a RCRA Part B permit for the accumulation of unwanted material and hazardous waste in its laboratories, provided the laboratories comply with the provisions of this Subsection and the eligible academic entity has a Laboratory Management Plan (LMP) in accordance with § 262.214 that describes how the laboratories owned by the eligible academic entity will comply with the requirements of this subsection.
An eligible academic entity must manage containers of unwanted material while in the laboratory in accordance with the requirements in this subsection.
An eligible academic entity must provide training to all individuals working in a laboratory at the eligible academic entity, as follows:
If an eligible academic entity makes the hazardous waste determination, pursuant to § 262.11(a) through (d), for unwanted material in the laboratory, it must comply with the following:
If an eligible academic entity makes the hazardous waste determination, pursuant to § 262.11, for unwanted material at an on-site central accumulation area, it must comply with the following:
If an eligible academic entity makes the hazardous waste determination, pursuant to § 262.11, for unwanted material at an on-site interim status or permitted treatment, storage or disposal facility, it must comply with the following:
An eligible academic entity must develop and retain a written Laboratory Management Plan, or revise an existing written plan. The Laboratory Management Plan is a site-specific document that describes how the eligible academic entity will manage unwanted materials in compliance with this subpart. An eligible academic entity may write one Laboratory Management Plan for all the laboratories owned by the eligible academic entity that have opted into this subpart, even if the laboratories are located at sites with different EPA Identification Numbers. The Laboratory Management Plan must contain two parts with a total of nine elements identified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. In Part I of its Laboratory Management Plan, an eligible academic entity must describe its procedures for each of the elements listed in paragraph (a) of this section. An eligible academic entity must implement and comply with the specific provisions that it develops to address the elements in Part I of the Laboratory Management Plan. In Part II of its Laboratory Management Plan, an eligible academic entity must describe its best management practices for each of the elements listed in paragraph (b) of this section. The specific actions taken by an eligible academic entity to implement each element in Part II of its Laboratory Management Plan may vary from the procedures described in the eligible academic entity's Laboratory Management Plan, without constituting a violation of this subpart. An eligible academic entity may include additional elements and best management practices in Part II of its Laboratory Management Plan if it chooses.
An eligible academic entity that generates hazardous waste outside of a laboratory is not eligible to manage that hazardous waste under this subpart; and
This subsection is applicable to very small quantity generators and small quantity generators as defined in §260.10 of this rule.
"Episodic event" means an activity or activities, either planned or unplanned, that does not normally occur during generator operations, resulting in an increase in the generation of hazardous wastes that exceeds the calendar month quantity limits for the generator's usual category.
"Planned episodic event" means an episodic event that the generator planned and prepared for, including regular maintenance, tank cleanouts, short-term projects, and removal of excess chemical inventory
"Unplanned episodic event" means an episodic event that the generator did not plan or reasonably did not expect to occur, including production process upsets, product recalls, accidental spills, or "acts of nature," such as tornado, hurricane, or flood.
The rules of this subsection apply to those areas of a large quantity generator where hazardous waste is generated or accumulated on site.
A large quantity generator must maintain and operate its facility to minimize the possibility of a fire, explosion, or any unplanned sudden or non-sudden release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents to air, soil, or surface water which could threaten human health or the environment.
All areas deemed applicable by §262.250 must be equipped with the items in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section (unless none of the hazards posed by waste handled at the facility could require a particular kind of equipment specified below or the actual hazardous waste generation or accumulation area does not lend itself for safety reasons to have a particular kind of equipment specified below). A large quantity generator may determine the most appropriate locations within its facility to locate equipment necessary to prepare for and respond to emergencies:
All communications or alarm systems, fire protection equipment, spill control equipment, and decontamination equipment, where required, must be tested and maintained as necessary to assure its proper operation in time of emergency.
The large quantity generator must maintain aisle space to allow the unobstructed movement of personnel, fire protection equipment, spill control equipment, and decontamination equipment to any area of facility operation in an emergency, unless aisle space is not needed for any of these purposes.
A copy of the contingency plan and all revisions to the plan must be maintained at the large quantity generator and-
The contingency plan must be reviewed, and immediately amended, if necessary, whenever:
At all times, there must be at least one employee either on the generator's premises or on call (i.e., available to respond to an emergency by reaching the facility within a short period of time) with the responsibility for coordinating all emergency response measures and implementing the necessary emergency procedures outlined in §262.265. Although responsibilities may vary depending on factors such as type and variety of hazardous waste(s) handled by the facility, as well as type and complexity of the facility, this emergency coordinator must be thoroughly familiar with all aspects of the generator's contingency plan, all operations and activities at the facility, the location and characteristics of hazardous waste handled, the location of all records within the facility, and the facility's layout. In addition, this person must have the authority to commit the resources needed to carry out the contingency plan.
Appendix I Section 262 [Reserved]
Note: Intermediate rail transporters are not required to sign either the manifest or shipping paper.
A transporter must clean up any hazardous waste spill or discharge that occurs during transportation or take such action as may be required or approved by Federal, State, or local officials so that the hazardous waste discharge no longer presents a hazard to human health or the environment.
[Comment: These Section 264 rules do apply to the treatment or storage of hazardous waste before it is loaded onto an ocean vessel for incineration or disposal at sea.]
[Comment: These Section 264 rules do apply to the above-ground treatment or storage of hazardous waste before it is injected underground.]
A facility owner or operator who has fully complied with the requirements for interim status - as defined in section 3005(e) of RCRA and regulations under § 270.70 of this rule - must comply with the rules specified in Section 265 of this rule in lieu of the rules in this Section, until final administrative disposition of his permit application is made, except as provided under Subsection S of this Section.
[Comment: As stated in section 3005(a) of RCRA, after the effective date of regulations under that section, i.e., Sections 270 of this rule and 40 CFR 124, the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste is prohibited except in accordance with a permit. Section 3005(e) of RCRA provides for the continued operation of an existing facility which meets certain conditions until final administrative disposition of the owner's or operator's permit application is made.]
Notwithstanding any other provisions of these rules, enforcement actions may be brought pursuant to section 7003 of RCRA, the Arkansas Hazardous Waste Management Act (A.C.A. §§ 8-7-201et seq., and the Arkansas Remedial Action Trust Fund Act (A.C.A. §§ 8-7-501et seq.).
Every facility owner or operator must apply to the Division for an EPA identification number in accordance with the Division's and EPA's notification procedures.
[Comment: An owner's or operator's failure to notify the new owner or operator of the requirements of this Section in no way relieves the new owner or operator of his obligation to comply with all applicable requirements.]
[Comment: For example, the facility's records of analyses performed on the waste before the effective date of these rules, or studies conducted on hazardous waste generated from processes similar to that which generated the waste to be managed at the facility, may be included in the data base required to comply with paragraph (a)(1) of this section. The owner or operator of an off-site facility may arrange for the generator of the hazardous waste to supply Section of the information required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section, except as otherwise specified in § 268.7 (b) and (c). If the generator does not supply the information, and the owner or operator chooses to accept a hazardous waste, the owner or operator is responsible for obtaining the information required to comply with this section.]
[Comment: See § 260.21 of this rule for related discussion.]
[Comment: Section 270 of this rule requires that the waste analysis plan be submitted with Part B of the permit application.]
[Comment: Section 270 of this rule requires that an owner or operator who wishes to make the demonstration referred to above must do so with Part B of the permit application.]
[Comment: The requirements of paragraph (b) of this section are satisfied if the facility or plant within which the active portion is located itself has a surveillance system, or a barrier and a means to control entry, which complies with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section.]
[Comment: See § 264.117(b) for discussion of security requirements at disposal facilities during the post-closure care period.]
[Comment: Section 270 of this rule requires that owners and operators submit with Part B of the RCRA permit application, an outline of the training program used (or to be used) at the facility and a brief description of how the training program is designed to meet actual job tasks.]
[Comment: Procedures for demonstrating compliance with this standard in Part B of the permit application are specified in § 270.14(b)(11). Facilities which are located in political jurisdictions other than those listed in Appendix VI of this Section, are assumed to be in compliance with this requirement.]
[Comment: The location where wastes are moved must be a facility which is either permitted by the Division under Section 270 of this rule or in interim status under Sections 270 and 265 of this rule.]
Additional State Siting Criteria for Arkansas Facilities:
The rules in this Subsection apply to owners and operators of all hazardous waste facilities, except as § 264.1 provides otherwise.
Facilities must be designed, constructed, maintained, and operated to minimize the possibility of a fire, explosion, or any unplanned sudden or non-sudden release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents to air, soil, or surface water which could threaten human health or the environment.
All facilities must be equipped with the following, unless it can be demonstrated to the Director that none of the hazards posed by waste handled at the facility could require a particular kind of equipment specified below:
[Comment: Section 270 of this rule requires that an owner or operator who wishes to make the demonstration referred to above must do so with Part B of the permit application.]
All facility communications or alarm systems, fire protection equipment, spill control equipment, and decontamination equipment, where required, must be tested and maintained as necessary to assure its proper operation in time of emergency.
The owner or operator must maintain aisle space to allow the unobstructed movement of personnel, fire protection equipment, spill control equipment, and decontamination equipment to any area of facility operation in an emergency, unless it can be demonstrated to the Director that aisle space is not needed for any of these purposes.
[Comment: Section 270 of this rule requires that an owner or operator who wishes to make the demonstration referred to above must do so with Part B of the permit application.]
The rules in this Subsection apply to owners and operators of all hazardous waste facilities, except as § 264.1 provides otherwise.
A copy of the contingency plan and all revisions to the plan must be:
[Comment: The contingency plan must be submitted to the Director with Part B of the permit application under Section 270, of this rule and, after modification or approval, will become a condition of any permit issued.]
The contingency plan must be reviewed, and immediately amended, if necessary, whenever:
At all times, there must be at least one employee either on the facility premises or on call (i.e., available to respond to an emergency by reaching the facility within a short period of time) with the responsibility for coordinating all emergency response measures. This emergency coordinator must be thoroughly familiar with all aspects of the facility's contingency plan, all operations and activities at the facility, the location and characteristics of waste handled, the location of all records within the facility, and the facility layout. In addition, this person must have the authority to commit the resources needed to carry out the contingency plan.
[Comment: The emergency coordinator's responsibilities are more fully spelled out in § 264.56. Applicable responsibilities for the emergency coordinator vary, depending on factors such as type and variety of waste(s) handled by the facility, and type and complexity of the facility.]
[Comment: Unless the owner or operator can demonstrate, in accordance with § 261.3(c) or (d) of this rule, that the recovered material is not a hazardous waste, the owner or operator becomes a generator of hazardous waste and must manage it in accordance with all applicable requirements of Sections 262, 263, and 264 of this rule.]
[Comment: The Division and EPA do not intend that the owner or operator of a facility whose procedures under § 264.13(c) include waste analysis must perform that analysis before signing the shipping paper and giving it to the transporter. Section 264.72(b), however, requires reporting an unreconciled discrepancy discovered during later analysis.]
[Comment: Section 262.23(c) of this rule requires the generator to send three copies of the manifest to the facility when hazardous waste is sent by rail or water (bulk shipment).]
[Comment: See § 264.119 for related requirements.]
The owner or operator of a treatment, storage or disposal facility must prepare and submit a single copy of an Annual Report to the Director not later than March 1, of each year. The Annual report must be submitted on forms or in an electronic format furnished or approved by the Division and in accordance with the annual instruction booklet provided by the Division. The report must cover facility activities during the previous calendar year and must include, at a minimum, the following information:
[Comment: Where a facility receives unmanifested hazardous wastes, the Division suggests that the owner or operator obtain from each generator a certification that the waste qualifies for exclusion. Otherwise, the Division suggests that the owner or operator file an unmanifested waste report for the hazardous waste movement.]
In addition to submitting the annual reports and un-manifested waste reports described in §§ 264.75 and 264.76, the owner or operator must also report to the Director:
The owner or operator must comply with conditions specified in the facility permit that are designed to ensure that hazardous constituents under § 264.93 detected in the ground water from a regulated unit do not exceed the concentration limits under § 264.94 in the uppermost aquifer underlying the waste management area beyond the point of compliance under § 264.95 during the compliance period under § 264.96. The Director will establish this ground-water protection standard in the facility permit when hazardous constituents have been detected in the ground water.
Table 1
Maximum Concentration of Constituents for Ground-water Protection
Constituent | Maximum concentration1 |
Arsenic | 0.05 |
Barium | 1.0 |
Cadmium | 0.01 |
Chromium | 0.05 |
Lead | 0.05 |
Mercury | 0.002 |
Selenium | 0.01 |
Silver | 0.05 |
Endrin | 0.0002 |
Lindane | 0.004 |
Methoxychlor | 0.1 |
Toxaphene | 0.005 |
2,4-D | 0.1 |
2,4,5-TP Silvex | 0.01 |
FOOTNOTE: 1Milligrams per liter.
The owner or operator must comply with the following requirements for any ground-water monitoring program developed to satisfy § 264.98, § 264.99, or § 264.100:
An owner or operator required to establish a detection monitoring program under this Subsection must, at a minimum, discharge the following responsibilities:
An owner or operator required to establish a compliance monitoring program under this Subsection must, at a minimum, discharge the following responsibilities:
An owner or operator required to establish a corrective action program under this Subsection must, at a minimum, discharge the following responsibilities:
Except as § 264.1 provides otherwise:
The owner or operator must close the facility in a manner that:
During the partial and final closure periods, all contaminated equipment, structures and soils must be properly disposed of or decontaminated unless otherwise specified in §§ 264.197, 264.228, 264.258, 264.280 or § 264.310. By removing any hazardous wastes or hazardous constituents during partial and final closure, the owner or operator may become a generator of hazardous waste and must handle that waste in accordance with all applicable requirements of Section 262 of this rule.
Within 60 days of completion of closure of each hazardous waste surface impoundment, waste pile, land treatment, and landfill unit, and within 60 days of the completion of final closure, the owner or operator must submit to the Director, by registered mail, a certification that the hazardous waste management unit or facility, as applicable, has been closed in accordance with the specifications in the approved closure plan. The certification must be signed by the owner or operator and by an independent Arkansas-registered professional engineer. Documentation supporting the independent Arkansas-registered professional engineer's certification must be furnished to the Director upon request until he releases the owner or operator from the financial assurance requirements for closure under § 264.143(i).
No later than the submission of the certification of closure of each hazardous waste disposal unit, the owner or operator must submit to the local zoning authority, or the authority with jurisdiction over local land use, and to the Director, a survey plat indicating the location and dimensions of landfills cells or other hazardous waste disposal units with respect to permanently surveyed benchmarks. This plat must be prepared and certified by a professional land surveyor. The plat filed with the local zoning authority, or the authority with jurisdiction over local land use, must contain a note, prominently displayed, which states the owner's or operator's obligation to restrict disturbance of the hazardous waste disposal unit in accordance with the applicable Subsection G rules.
No later than 60 days after completion of the established post-closure care period for each hazardous waste disposal unit, the owner or operator must submit to the Director, by registered mail, a certification that the post-closure care period for the hazardous waste disposal unit was performed in accordance with the specifications in the approved post-closure plan. The certification must be signed by the owner or operator and an independent Arkansas-registered professional engineer. Documentation supporting the independent Arkansas-registered professional engineer's certification must be furnished to the Director upon request until he releases the owner or operator from the financial assurance requirements for post-closure care under § 264.145(i).
"Assets" means all existing and all probable future economic benefits obtained or controlled by a particular entity.
"Captive insurance" means insurance for which the insurer underwrites insurance policies solely for its parent corporation or for other affiliates controlled by its parent.
"Completed fiscal year" shall mean a period based upon generally accepted accounting principles."
"Current assets" means cash or other assets or resources commonly identified as those which are reasonably expected to be realized in cash or sold or consumed during the normal operating cycle of the business.
"Current liabilities" means obligations whose liquidation is reasonably expected to require the use of existing resources properly classifiable as current assets or the creation of other current liabilities.
"Current plugging and abandonment cost estimate" means the most recent of the estimates prepared in accordance with 40 CFR 144.62(a), (b), and (c).
"Independently audited" refers to an audit performed by an independent certified public accountant in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards.
"Liabilities" means probable future sacrifices of economic benefits arising from present obligations to transfer assets or provide services to other entities in the future as a result of past transactions or events.
"Net working capital" means current assets minus current liabilities.
"Net worth" means total assets minus total liabilities and is equivalent to owner's equity.
"Tangible net worth" means the tangible assets that remain after deducting liabilities; such assets would not include intangibles such as goodwill and rights to patents or royalties.
"Accidental occurrence" means an accident, including continuous or repeated exposure to conditions, which results in bodily injury or property damage neither expected nor intended from the standpoint of the insured.
"Legal defense costs" means any expenses that an insurer incurs in defending against claims of third parties brought under the terms and conditions of an insurance policy.
"Nonsudden accidental occurrence" means an occurrence which takes place over time and involves continuous or repeated exposure.
"Sudden accidental occurrence" means an occurrence which is not continuous or repeated in nature.
An owner or operator of each facility must establish financial assurance for closure of the facility. He must choose from the options as specified in paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section.
where CE is the current closure cost estimate, CV is the current value of the trust fund, and Y is the number of years remaining in the pay-in period.
where CE is the current closure cost estimate, CV is the current value of the trust fund, and Y is the number of years remaining in the pay-in period.
Note: APC &EC Rule No. 23, Sections 264 and 265, subsections H refer to acceptable bond ratings by Standard & Poor's and Moody's as BBB or higher if rated by S&P, or Baa or higher if rated by Moody's. In recent years these rating companies have added suffixes of "+" or "-" to their ratings to indicate whether the bond is rated in the upper (+ or 1), median (no suffix, or 2) or lower (- or 3) third of all bonds rated under that category. Federal financial assurance rules have not been revised since the rating companies instituted this practice, and it is EPA's and DEQ's practice to consider bonds rated in the lower third (BBB- or Baa3) as if they were rated as BBB or Baa under the old rating scheme.
* issued by Standard and Poor's or Aaa, Aa, A, or Baa as issued by Moody's ; and
The owner or operator of a hazardous waste management unit subject to the requirements of § 264.144 must establish financial assurance for post-closure care in accordance with the approved post-closure plan for the facility 60 days prior to the initial receipt of hazardous waste or the effective date of the rule, whichever is later. He must choose from the following options:
where CE is the current post-closure cost estimate, CV is the current value of the trust fund, and Y is the number of years remaining in the pay-in period.
where CE is the current post-closure cost estimate, CV is the current value of the trust fund, and Y is the number of years remaining in the pay-in period.
An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements for financial assurance for both closure and post-closure care for one or more facilities by using a trust fund, surety bond, letter of credit, insurance, financial test, or corporate guarantee that meets the specifications for the mechanism in both §§ 264.143 and 264.145. The amount of funds available through the mechanism must be no less than the sum of funds that would be available if a separate mechanism had been established and maintained for financial assurance of closure and of post-closure care.
[Note: Arkansas does not require a specific mechanism for demonstrating financial responsibility, but may accept a demonstration which meets the requirements of any of the mechanisms allowed under this Subsection.]
Trust Agreement
Trust Agreement, the "Agreement," entered into as of [date] by and between [name of the owner or operator], a [name of State] [insert "corporation," "partnership," "association," or "proprietorship"], the "Grantor," and [name of corporate trustee], [insert "incorporated in the State of " or "a national bank"], the "Trustee."
Whereas, the Division of Environmental Quality, "DEQ", an agency of the State of Arkansas, has established certain rules applicable to the Grantor, requiring that an owner or operator of a hazardous waste management facility shall provide assurance that funds will be available when needed for closure and/or post-closure care of the facility,
Whereas, the Grantor has elected to establish a trust to provide all or part of such financial assurance for the facilities identified herein,
Whereas, the Grantor, acting through its duly authorized officers, has selected the Trustee to be the trustee under this agreement, and the Trustee is willing to act as trustee, Now, Therefore, the Grantor and the Trustee agree as follows:
In Witness Whereof the parties have caused this Agreement to be executed by their respective officers duly authorized and their corporate seals to be hereunto affixed and attested as of the date first above written: The parties below certify that the wording of this Agreement is identical to the wording specified in APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264.151(a)(1) as such rules were constituted on the date first above written.
[Signature of Grantor]
[Title]
Attest:
[Title]
[Seal]
[Signature of Trustee]
Attest:
[Title]
[Seal]
State of
County of
On this [date], before me personally came [owner or operator] to me known, who, being by me duly sworn, did depose and say that she/he resides at [address], that she/he is [title] of [corporation], the corporation described in and which executed the above instrument; that she/he knows the seal of said corporation; that the seal affixed to such instrument is such corporate seal; that it was so affixed by order of the Board of Directors of said corporation, and that she/he signed her/his name thereto by like order. [Signature of Notary Public]
Financial Guarantee Bond
Date bond executed:
Effective date:
Principal: [legal name and business address of owner or operator]
Type of Organization: [insert "individual," "joint venture," "partnership," or "corporation"]
State of incorporation:
Surety(ies): [name(s) and business address(es)]
EPA Identification Number, name, address and closure and/or post-closure amount(s) for each facility guaranteed by this bond [indicate closure and post-closure amounts separately]:
Total penal sum of bond: $
Surety's bond number:
Know All Persons By These Presents, That we, the Principal and Surety(ies) hereto are firmly bound to the Division of Environmental Quality (hereinafter called DEQ), in the above penal sum for the payment of which we bind ourselves, our heirs, executors, administrators, successors, and assigns jointly and severally; provided that, where the Surety(ies) are corporations acting as co-sureties, we, the Sureties, bind ourselves in such sum "jointly and severally" only for the purpose of allowing a joint action or actions against any or all of us, and for all other purposes each Surety binds itself, jointly and severally with the Principal, for the payment of such sum only as is set forth opposite the name of such Surety, but if no limit of liability is indicated, the limit of liability shall be the full amount of the penal sum.
Whereas said Principal is required, under the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act as amended (RCRA) and the Arkansas Hazardous Waste Management Act, to have a permit or interim status in order to own or operate each hazardous waste management facility identified above, and
Whereas said Principal is required to provide financial assurance for closure, or closure and post-closure care, as a condition of the permit or interim status, and
Whereas said Principal shall establish a standby trust fund as is required when a surety bond is used to provide such financial assurance;
Now, Therefore, the conditions of the obligation are such that if the Principal shall faithfully, before the beginning of final closure of each facility identified above, fund the standby trust fund in the amount(s) identified above for the facility,
Or, if the Principal shall fund the standby trust fund in such amount(s) within 15 days after a final order to begin closure is issued by the DEQ Director or a U.S. district court or other court of competent jurisdiction,
Or, if the Principal shall provide alternate financial assurance, as specified in Subsection H of APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264 or 265, as applicable, and obtain the Director's written approval of such assurance, within 90 days after the date notice of cancellation is received by both the Principal and the Director from the Surety(ies), then this obligation shall be null and void; otherwise it is to remain in full force and effect.
The Surety(ies) shall become liable on this bond obligation only when the Principal has failed to fulfill the conditions described above. Upon notification by the Director that the Principal has failed to perform as guaranteed by this bond, the Surety(ies) shall place funds in the amount guaranteed for the facility(ies) into the standby trust fund as directed by the Director.
The liability of the Surety(ies) shall not be discharged by any payment or succession of payments hereunder, unless and until such payment or payments shall amount in the aggregate to the penal sum of the bond, but in no event shall the obligation of the Surety(ies) hereunder exceed the amount of said penal sum.
The Surety(ies) may cancel the bond by sending notice of cancellation by certified mail to the Principal and to the Director, provided, however, that cancellation shall not occur during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the Principal and the Director, as evidenced by the return receipts.
The Principal may terminate this bond by sending written notice to the Surety(ies), provided, however, that no such notice shall become effective until the Surety(ies) receive(s) written authorization for termination of the bond by the Director.
[The following paragraph is an optional rider that may be included but is not required.] Principal and Surety(ies) hereby agree to adjust the penal sum of the bond yearly so that it guarantees a new closure and/or post-closure amount, provided that the penal sum does not increase by more than 20 percent in any one year, and no decrease in the penal sum takes place without the written permission of the Director.
In Witness Whereof, the Principal and Surety(ies) have executed this Financial Guarantee Bond and have affixed their seals on the date set forth above.
The persons whose signatures appear below hereby certify that they are authorized to execute this surety bond on behalf of the Principal and Surety(ies) and that the wording of this surety bond is identical to the wording specified in APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264.151(b) as such rules were constituted on the date this bond was executed. Principal
[Signature(s)]
[Name(s)]
[Title(s)]
[Corporate seal]
Corporate Surety(ies)
[Name and address]
State of incorporation:]
Liability limit: $
[Signature(s)]
[Name(s) and title(s)]
[Corporate seal]
[For every co-surety, provide signature(s), corporate seal, and other information in the same manner as for Surety above.] Bond premium: $
Performance Bond
Date bond executed:
Effective date:
Principal: [legal name and business address of owner or operator]
Type of organization: [insert "individual," "joint venture," "partnership," or "corporation"]
State of incorporation:
Surety(ies): [name(s) and business address(es)]
EPA Identification Number, name, address, and closure and/or post-closure amount(s) for each facility guaranteed by this bond [indicate closure and post-closure amounts separately]:
Total penal sum of bond: $
Surety's bond number:
Know All Persons By These Presents, That we, the Principal and Surety(ies) hereto are firmly bound to the Division of Environmental Quality (hereinafter called DEQ), in the above penal sum for the payment of which we bind ourselves, our heirs, executors, administrators, successors, and assigns jointly and severally; provided that, where the Surety(ies) are corporations acting as co-sureties, we, the Sureties, bind ourselves in such sum "jointly and severally" only for the purpose of allowing a joint action or actions against any or all of us, and for all other purposes each Surety binds itself, jointly and severally with the Principal, for the payment of such sum only as is set forth opposite the name of such Surety, but if no limit of liability is indicated, the limit of liability shall be the full amount of the penal sum.
Whereas said Principal is required, under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act as amended (RCRA) and the Arkansas Hazardous Waste Management Act, to have a permit in order to own or operate each hazardous waste management facility identified above, and
Whereas said Principal is required to provide financial assurance for closure, or closure and post-closure care, as a condition of the permit, and
Whereas said Principal shall establish a standby trust fund as is required when a surety bond is used to provide such financial assurance;
Now, Therefore, the conditions of this obligation are such that if the Principal shall faithfully perform closure, whenever required to do so, of each facility for which this bond guarantees closure, in accordance with the closure plan and other requirements of the permit as such plan and permit may be amended, pursuant to all applicable laws, statutes, rules, and rules, as such laws, statutes, rules, and rules may be amended,
And, if the Principal shall faithfully perform post-closure care of each facility for which this bond guarantees post-closure care, in accordance with the post-closure plan and other requirements of the permit, as such plan and permit may be amended, pursuant to all applicable laws, statutes, rules, and regulations, as such laws, statutes, rules, and regulations may be amended,
Or, if the Principal shall provide alternate financial assurance as specified in Subsection H of APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264, and obtain the Director's written approval of such assurance, within 90 days after the date notice of cancellation is received by both the Principal and the Director from the Surety(ies), then this obligation shall be null and void, otherwise it is to remain in full force and effect.
The Surety(ies) shall become liable on this bond obligation only when the Principal has failed to fulfill the conditions described above.
Upon notification by the Director that the Principal has been found in violation of the closure requirements of APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264, for a facility for which this bond guarantees performance of closure, the Surety(ies) shall either perform closure in accordance with the closure plan and other permit requirements or place the closure amount guaranteed for the facility into the standby trust fund as directed by the Director.
Upon notification by an Director that the Principal has been found in violation of the post-closure requirements of APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264 for a facility for which this bond guarantees performance of post-closure care, the Surety(ies) shall either perform post-closure care in accordance with the post-closure plan and other permit requirements or place the post-closure amount guaranteed for the facility into the standby trust fund as directed by the Director.
Upon notification by the Director that the Principal has failed to provide alternate financial assurance as specified in Subsection H of APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264, and obtain written approval of such assurance from the Director during the 90 days following receipt by both the Principal and the Director of a notice of cancellation of the bond, the Surety(ies) shall place funds in the amount guaranteed for the facility(ies) into the standby trust fund as directed by the Director.
The surety(ies) hereby waive(s) notification of amendments to closure plans, permits, applicable laws, statutes, rules, and regulations and agrees that no such amendment shall in any way alleviate its (their) obligation on this bond.
The liability of the Surety(ies) shall not be discharged by any payment or succession of payments hereunder, unless and until such payment or payments shall amount in the aggregate to the penal sum of the bond, but in no event shall the obligation of the Surety(ies) hereunder exceed the amount of said penal sum.
The Surety(ies) may cancel the bond by sending notice of cancellation by certified mail to the owner or operator and to the Director, provided, however, that cancellation shall not occur during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the Principal and the Director, as evidenced by the return receipts.
The principal may terminate this bond by sending written notice to the Surety(ies), provided, however, that no such notice shall become effective until the Surety(ies) receive(s) written authorization for termination of the bond by the Director.
[The following paragraph is an optional rider that may be included but is not required.]
Principal and Surety(ies) hereby agree to adjust the penal sum of the bond yearly so that it guarantees a new closure and/or post-closure amount, provided that the penal sum does not increase by more than 20 percent in any one year, and no decrease in the penal sum takes place without the written permission of the Director.
In Witness Whereof, The Principal and Surety(ies) have executed this Performance Bond and have affixed their seals on the date set forth above.
The persons whose signatures appear below hereby certify that they are authorized to execute this surety bond on behalf of the Principal and Surety(ies) and that the wording of this surety bond is identical to the wording specified in APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264.151(c) as such regulation was constituted on the date this bond was executed.
Principal
[Signature(s)]
[Name(s)]
[Title(s)]
[Corporate seal]
Corporate Surety(ies)
[Name and address]
State of incorporation:
Liability limit: $
[Signature(s)]
[Name(s) and title(s)]
[Corporate seal]
[For every co-surety, provide signature(s), corporate seal, and other information in the same manner as for Surety above.]
Bond premium: $
Irrevocable Standby Letter of Credit
Director
Division of Environmental Quality
5301 Northshore Drive
North Little Rock, AR 72118
Dear Sir or Madam:
We hereby establish our Irrevocable Standby Letter of Credit No. in your favor, at the request and for the account of [owner's or operator's name and address] up to the aggregate amount of [in words] U.S. dollars $, available upon presentation [insert, if more than one Agency is a beneficiary, "by any one of you"] of
This letter of credit is effective as of [date] and shall expire on [date at least 1 year later], but such expiration date shall be automatically extended for a period of [at least 1 year] on [date] and on each successive expiration date, unless, at least 120 days before the current expiration date, we notify both you and [owner's or operator's name] by certified mail that we have decided not to extend this letter of credit beyond the current expiration date. In the event you are so notified, any unused portion of the credit shall be available upon presentation of your sight draft for 120 days after the date of receipt by both you and [owner's or operator's name], as shown on the signed return receipts.
Whenever this letter of credit is drawn on under and in compliance with the terms of this credit, we shall duly honor such draft upon presentation to us, and we shall deposit the amount of the draft directly into the standby trust fund of [owner's or operator's name] in accordance with your instructions.
We certify that the wording of this letter of credit is identical to the wording specified in APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264.151(d) as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
[Signature(s) and title(s) of official(s) of issuing institution] [Date]
This credit is subject to [insert "the most recent edition of the Uniform Customs and Practice for
Documentary Credits, published and copyrighted by the International Chamber of Commerce," or "the Uniform Commercial Code"].
Certificate of Insurance for Closure or Post-Closure Care
Name and Address of Insurer
(herein called the "Insurer"):
Name and Address of Insured
(herein called the "Insured"):
Facilities Covered: [List for each facility: The EPA Identification Number, name, address, and the amount of insurance for closure, the amount for post-closure care, and/or the amount for corrective action (these amounts for all facilities covered must total the face amount shown below).]
Face Amount:
Policy Number:
Effective Date:
The Insurer hereby certifies that it has issued to the Insured the policy of insurance identified above to provide financial assurance for [insert "closure" or "closure and post-closure care" or "post-closure care" or "corrective action" or "closure and post-closure care and corrective action" or ""closure and corrective action" or "post-closure care and corrective action"] for the facilities identified above. The Insurer further warrants that such policy conforms in all respects with the requirements of APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264.143(e), 264.145(e), 265.143(d), and 265.145(d), as applicable and as such rules were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
It is agreed that any provision of the policy inconsistent with such rules is hereby amended to eliminate such inconsistency.
The Insurer agrees to furnish to the Director a duplicate original of the policy listed above, including all endorsements thereon.
I hereby certify that the wording of this certificate is identical to the wording specified in APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264.151(e) as such rules were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
[Authorized signature for Insurer]
[Name of person signing]
[Title of person signing]
Signature of witness or notary:
[Date]
Letter From Chief Financial Officer
Director
Division of Environmental Quality
5301 Northshore Drive
North Little Rock, Arkansas 72118
I am the chief financial officer of [name and address of firm]. This letter is in support of this firm's use of the financial test to demonstrate financial assurance for closure and/or post-closure costs, as specified in subsection H of APC&EC Rule No. 23 (Hazardous Waste Management) Sections 264 and 265.
[Fill out the following five paragraphs regarding facilities and associated cost estimates. If your firm has no facilities that belong in a particular paragraph, write "None" in the space indicated.
For each facility, include its EPA Identification Number, name, address, and current closure and/or post-closure cost estimates. Identify each cost estimate as to whether it is for closure or post-closure care].
This firm [insert "is required" or "is not required"] to file a Form 10K with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) for the latest fiscal year.
The fiscal year of this firm ends on [month, day]. The figures for the following items marked with an asterisk are derived from this firm's independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year, ended [date].
[Fill in Alternative I if the criteria of paragraph (f)(1)(i) of § 264.143 or § 264.145, or of paragraph (e)(1)(i) of § 265.143 or § 265.145 of this rule are used. Fill in Alternative II if the criteria of paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of § 264.143 or § 264.145, or of paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of § 265.143 or § 265.145 of this rule are used.]
Alternative I
Alternative II
I hereby certify that the wording of this letter is identical to the wording specified in APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264.151(f) as such rule s were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
[Signature] ____________
[Name _______________
[Title] _______________
[Date] ________________
Letter From Chief Financial Officer
Director
Division of Environmental Quality
5301 Northshore Drive
North Little Rock, Arkansas 72118
I am the chief financial officer of [firm's name and address]. This letter is in support of the use of the financial test to demonstrate financial responsibility for liability coverage [insert "and closure and/or post-closure care" if applicable] as specified in subsection H of APC&EC Rule No. 23 (Hazardous Waste Management), Sections 264 and 265.
[Fill out the following paragraphs regarding facilities and liability coverage. If there are no facilities that belong in a particular paragraph, write "None" in the space indicated. For each facility, include its EPA Identification Number, name, and address].
The firm identified above is the owner or operator of the following facilities for which liability coverage for [insert "sudden" or "nonsudden" or "both sudden and nonsudden"] accidental occurrences is being demonstrated through the financial test specified in subsection of Rule No. 23, Sections 264 and 265. _______
The firm identified above guarantees, through the guarantee specified in subsection H of Rule No. 23 Sections 264 and 265, liability coverage for [insert "sudden" or "nonsudden" of "both sudden and nonsudden"] accidental occurrences at the following facilities owned or operated by the following: _______ The firm identified above is [insert one or more:
[If you are using the financial test to demonstrate coverage of both liability and closure and post-closure care, fill in the following five paragraphs regarding facilities and associated closure and post-closure cost estimates. If there are no facilities that belong in a particular paragraph, write "None" in the space indicated. For each facility, include its EPA identification number, name, address, and current closure and/or post-closure cost estimates. Identify each cost estimate as to whether it is for closure or post-closure care.]
This firm [insert "is required" or "is not required"] to file a Form 10K with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) for the latest fiscal year.
The fiscal year of this firm ends on [month, day]. The figures for the following items marked with an asterisk are derived from this firm's independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year, ended [date].
Part A. Liability Coverage for Accidental Occurrences
[Fill in Alternative I if the criteria of paragraph (f)(1)(i) of § 264.147 or § 265.147 are used. Fill in Alternative II if the criteria of paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of § 264.147 or § 265.147 are used.]
Alternative I
Alternative II
[Fill in part B if you are using the financial test to demonstrate assurance of both liability coverage and closure or post-closure care.]
Part B. Closure or Post-Closure Care and Liability Coverage
[Fill in Alternative I if the criteria of paragraphs (f)(1)(i) of § 264.143 or § 264.145 and (f)(1)(i) of § 264.147 are used or if the criteria of paragraphs (e)(1)(i) of § 265.143 or § 265.145 and (f)(1)(i) of § 265.147 are used. Fill in Alternative II if the criteria of paragraphs (f)(1)(ii) of § 264.143 or § 264.145 and (f)(1)(ii) of § 264.147 are used or if the criteria of paragraphs (e)(1)(i) of § 265.143 or § 265.145 and (f)(1)(ii) of § 265.147 are used.]
Alternative I
Alternative II
I hereby certify that the wording of this letter is identical to the wording specified in Rule No. 23, § 264.151 (g) as such rule s were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
[Signature] ___________
[Name __________
[Title] __________
[Date] __________
Corporate Guarantee for Closure or Post-Closure Care
Guarantee made this [date] by [name of guaranteeing entity], a business corporation organized under the laws of the State of [insert name of State], herein referred to as guarantor. This guarantee is made on behalf of the [owner or operator] of [business address], which is [one of the following: "our subsidiary"; "a subsidiary of [name and address of common parent corporation], of which guarantor is a subsidiary"; or "an entity with which guarantor has a substantial business relationship, as defined in APC&EC Rule No. 23 (Hazardous Waste Management) [either § 264.141(h) or § 265.141(h)]" to the Division of Environmental Quality (DEQ).
Recitals
Guarantor may terminate this guarantee by sending notice by certified mail to the Director and to [owner or operator], provided that this guarantee may not be terminated unless and until [the owner or operator] obtains, and the Director approve(s), alternate closure and/or post-closure care coverage complying with Rule No. 23 §§ 264.143, 264.145, 265.143, and/or 265.145.
[Insert the following language if the guarantor is a firm qualifying as a guarantor due to its "substantial business relationship" with its owner or operator]
Guarantor may terminate this guarantee 120 days following the receipt of notification, through certified mail, by the Director and by [the owner or operator].
I hereby certify that the wording of this guarantee is identical to the wording specified in APC&EC Rule No. 23, § 264.151(h) as such rule s were constituted on the date first above written.
Effective date: _______
[Name of guarantor] _______
[Authorized signature for guarantor] _______
[Name of person signing] _______
[Title of person signing] _______
Signature of witness or notary: _______
Guarantee for Liability Coverage
Guarantee made this [date] by [name of guaranteeing entity], a business corporation organized under the laws of [if incorporated within the United States insert "the State of _______ " and insert name of State; if incorporated outside the United States insert the name of the country in which incorporated, the principal place of business within the United States, and the name and address of the registered agent in the State of the principal place of business], herein referred to as guarantor. This guarantee is made on behalf of [owner or operator] of [business address], which is one of the following: "our subsidiary;" "a subsidiary of [name and address of common parent corporation], or which guarantor is a subsidiary;" or "an entity with which guarantor has a substantial business relationship, as defined in APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264.141(h)]", to any and all third parties who have sustained or may sustain bodily injury or property damage caused by
[sudden and/or nonsudden] accidental occurrences arising from operation of the facility(ies)
covered by this guarantee.
Recitals
[Insert the following language if the guarantor is a firm qualifying as a guarantor due to its "substantial business relationship" with the owner or operator]: Guarantor may terminate this guarantee 120 days following receipt of notification, through certified mail, by the Director and by [the owner or operator].
Certification of Valid Claim
The undersigned, as parties [insert Principal] and [insert name and address of third-party claimant(s)], hereby certify that the claim of bodily injury and/or property damage caused by a [sudden or nonsudden] accidental occurrence arising from operating [Principal's hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility should be paid in the amount of $
[Signatures] _______
Principal _______
(Notary) Date _______
[Signatures] _______
Claimant(s) _______
(Notary) Date) _______
A valid final court order establishing a judgment against the Principal for bodily injury or property damage caused by sudden or nonsudden accidental occurrences arising from the operation of the Principal's facility or group of facilities.
I hereby certify that the wording of the guarantee is identical to the wording specified in Rule No. 23 § 264.151(h)(2) as such rule s were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
Effective date: _______
[Name of guarantor] _______
Authorized signature for guarantor] _______
[Name of person signing] _______
[Title of person signing] _______
Signature of witness of notary: _______
Hazardous Waste Facility Liability Endorsement
Attached to and forming part of policy No. issued by [name of Insurer], herein called the Insurer, of [address of Insurer] to [name of insured] of [address] this day of, 19 . The effective date of said policy is day of, 19.
I hereby certify that the wording of this endorsement is identical to the wording specified in APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264.151(i) as such rule was constituted on the date first above written, and that the Insurer is licensed to transact the business of insurance, or eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines insurer, in one or more States.
[Signature of Authorized Representative of Insurer]
[Type name]
[Title], Authorized Representative of [name of Insurer]
[Address of Representative]
Hazardous Waste Facility Certificate of Liability Insurance
I hereby certify that the wording of this instrument is identical to the wording specified in APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264.151(j) as such rule was constituted on the date first above written, and that the Insurer is licensed to transact the business of insurance, or eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines insurer, in one or more States.
[Signature of authorized representative of Insurer]
[Type name]
[Title], Authorized Representative of [name of Insurer]
[Address of Representative]
Irrevocable Standby Letter of Credit
Name and Address of Issuing Institution
Director
Division of Environmental Quality
5301 Northshore Drive
North Little Rock, Arkansas 72118
Dear Sir:
We hereby establish our Irrevocable Standby Letter of Credit No. in the favor of any and all third-party liability claimants, at the request and for the account of [owner's or operator's name and address] for third-party liability awards or settlements up to [in words] U.S. dollars $ per occurrence and the annual aggregate amount of [in words] U.S. dollars $, for sudden accidental occurrences and/or for third-party liability awards or settlements up to the amount of [in words] U.S. dollars $ per occurrence, and the annual aggregate amount of [in words] U.S. dollars $, for nonsudden accidental occurrences available upon presentation of a sight draft, bearing reference to this letter of credit No., and (1) a signed certificate reading as follows:
Certification of Valid Claim
The undersigned, as parties [insert principal] and [insert name and address of third-party claimants], hereby certify that the claim of bodily injury [and/or] property damage caused by a [sudden or nonsudden] accidental occurrence arising from operations of [principal's] hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility should be paid in the amount of $. We hereby certify that the claim does not apply to any of the following:
This exclusion applies:
[Signatures]
Principal
[Signatures]
Claimant(s)
or (2) a valid final court order establishing a judgment against the principal for bodily injury or property damage caused by a sudden or non-sudden accidental occurrence arising from operation of the principal's facility or group of facilities.
This letter of credit is effective as of [date] and shall expire on [date at least one year later], but such expiration date shall be automatically extended for a period of [at least one year] on [date] and on each successive expiration date, unless, at least 120 days before the current expiration date, we notify you, the DEQ Director, and [owner's or operator's name] by certified mail that we have decided not to extend this letter of credit beyond the current expiration date.
Whenever this letter of credit is drawn on under and in compliance with the terms of this credit,
we shall duly honor such draft upon presentation to us.
[Insert the following language if a standby trust fund is not being used:
"In the event that this letter of credit is used in combination with another mechanism for liability coverage, this letter of credit shall be considered [insert "primary" or "excess"] coverage."]
We certify that the wording of this letter of credit is identical to the wording specified in
APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264.151(k) as such rules were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
[Signature(s) and title(s) of official(s) of issuing institution]
[Date]
This credit is subject to [insert "the most recent edition of the Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits, published and copyrighted by the International Chamber of Commerce" or "the Uniform Commercial Code"].
Payment Bond
Surety Bond No. [Insert number]
Parties [Insert name and address of owner or operator], Principal, incorporated in [Insert State of incorporation] of [Insert city and State of principal place of business] and [Insert name and address of surety company(ies)], Surety Company(ies), of [Insert surety(ies) place of business].
EPA Identification Number, name, and address for each facility guaranteed by this bond:
Sudden accidental occurrences
Nonsudden accidental occurrences
Penal Sum Per Occurrence
[insert amount]
[insert amount]
Annual Aggregate
[insert amount]
[insert amount]
Purpose: This is an agreement between the Surety(ies) and the Principal under which the Surety(ies), its(their) successors and assignees, agree to be responsible for the payment of claims against the Principal for bodily injury and/or property damage to third parties caused by ["sudden" and/or "nonsudden"] accidental occurrences arising from operations of the facility or group of facilities in the sums prescribed herein; subject to the governing provisions and the following conditions.
Governing Provisions:
Conditions:
Certification of Valid Claim
The undersigned, as parties [insert name of Principal] and [insert name and address of third party claimant(s)], hereby certify that the claim of bodily injury and/or property damage caused by a [sudden or nonsudden] accidental occurrence arising from operating [Principal's] hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility should be paid in the amount of $[ ].
[Signature]
Principal
[Notary] Date
[Signature(s)]
Claimant(s)
[Notary] Date
or
In Witness Whereof, the Principal and Surety(ies) have executed this Bond and have affixed their seals on the date set forth above.
The persons whose signatures appear below hereby certify that they are authorized to execute this surety bond on behalf of the Principal and Surety(ies) and that the wording of this surety bond is identical to the wording specified in APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264.151(1), as such rule s were constituted on the date this bond was executed.
PRINCIPAL
[Signature(s)]
[Name(s)]
[Title(s)]
[Corporate Seal]
CORPORATE SURETY[IES]
[Name and address]
State of incorporation:
Liability Limit: $
[Signature(s)]
[Name(s) and title(s)]
[Corporate seal]
[For every co-surety, provide signature(s), corporate seal, and other information in the same manner as for Surety above.]
Bond premium: $
Trust Agreement, the "Agreement," entered into as of [date] by and between [name of the owner or operator] a [name of State] [insert "corporation," "partnership," "association," or "proprietorship"], the "Grantor," and [name of corporate trustee], [insert, "incorporated in the State of " or "a national bank"], the "trustee."
Whereas, the United States Environmental Protection Agency, "EPA," an agency of the United States Government, has established certain regulations applicable to the Grantor, requiring that an owner or operator of a hazardous waste management facility or group of facilities must demonstrate financial responsibility for bodily injury and property damage to third parties caused by sudden accidental and/or nonsudden accidental occurrences arising from operations of the facility or group of facilities.
Whereas, the Grantor has elected to establish a trust to assure all or part of such financial responsibility for the facilities identified herein.
Whereas, the Grantor, acting through its duly authorized officers, has selected the Trustee to be the trustee under this agreement, and the Trustee is willing to act as trustee.
Now, therefore, the Grantor and the Trustee agree as follows:
This exclusion applies:
In the event of combination with another mechanism for liability coverage, the fund shall be considered [insert "primary" or "excess"] coverage.
The Fund is established initially as consisting of the property, which is acceptable to the Trustee, described in Schedule B attached hereto. Such property and any other property subsequently transferred to the Trustee is referred to as the Fund, together with all earnings and profits thereon, less any payments or distributions made by the Trustee pursuant to this Agreement. The Fund shall be held by the Trustee, IN TRUST, as hereinafter provided. The Trustee shall not be responsible nor shall it undertake any responsibility for the amount or adequacy of, nor any duty to collect from the Grantor, any payments necessary to discharge any liabilities of the Grantor established by DEQ.
Certification of Valid Claim
The undersigned, as parties [insert Grantor] and [insert name and address of third party claimant(s)], hereby certify that the claim of bodily injury and/or property damage caused by a [sudden or nonsudden] accidental occurrence arising from operating [Grantor's] hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility should be paid in the amount of $[ ].
[Signatures]
Grantor
[Signatures]
Claimant(s)
The Director will agree to termination of the Trust when the owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this section.
In Witness Whereof the parties have caused this Agreement to be executed by their respective officers duly authorized and their corporate seals to be hereunto affixed and attested as of the date first above written. The parties below certify that the wording of this Agreement is identical to the wording specified in APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264.151(m) as such rules were constituted on the date first above written.
[Signature of Grantor]
[Title]
Attest:
[Title]
[Seal]
[Signature of Trustee]
Attest:
[Title]
[Seal]
State of
County of
On this [date], before me personally came [owner or operator] to me known, who, being by me duly sworn, did depose and say that she/he resides at [address], that she/he is [title] of [corporation], the corporation described in and which executed the above instrument; that she/he knows the seal of said corporation; that the seal affixed to such instrument is such corporate seal; that it was so affixed by order of the Board of Directors of said corporation, and that she/he signed her/his name thereto by like order.
[Signature of Notary Public]
Standby Trust Agreement
Trust Agreement, the "Agreement," entered into as of [date] by and between [name of the owner or operator] a [name of a State] [insert "corporation," "partnership," "association," or "proprietorship"], the "Grantor," and [name of corporate trustee], [insert, "incorporated in the State of _______ " or "a national bank"], the "trustee."
Whereas the United States Environmental Protection Agency, "EPA," an agency of the United States Government, and the Division of Environmental Quality, an agency of the State of Arkansas, have established certain regulations applicable to the Grantor, requiring that an owner or operator of a hazardous waste management facility or group of facilities must demonstrate financial responsibility for bodily injury and property damage to third parties caused by sudden accidental and/or nonsudden accidental occurrences arising from operations of the facility or group of facilities.
Whereas, the Grantor has elected to establish a standby trust into which the proceeds from a letter of credit may be deposited to assure all or part of such financial responsibility for the facilities identified herein.
Whereas, the Grantor, acting through its duly authorized officers, has selected the Trustee to be the trustee under this agreement, and the Trustee is willing to act as trustee.
Now, therefore, the Grantor and the Trustee agree as follows:
This exclusion applies:
In the event of combination with another mechanism for liability coverage, the fund shall be considered [insert "primary" or "excess"] coverage.
The Fund is established initially as consisting of the proceeds of the letter of credit deposited into the Fund. Such proceeds and any other property subsequently transferred to the Trustee is referred to as the Fund, together with all earnings and profits thereon, less any payments or distributions made by the Trustee pursuant to this Agreement. The Fund shall be held by the Trustee, IN TRUST, as hereinafter provided. The Trustee shall not be responsible nor shall it undertake any responsibility for the amount or adequacy of, nor any duty to collect from the Grantor, any payments necessary to discharge any liabilities of the Grantor established by the Division.
The undersigned, as parties [insert Grantor] and [insert name and address of third party claimant(s)], hereby certify that the claim of bodily injury and/or property damage caused by a [sudden or nonsudden] accidental occurrence arising from operating [Grantor's] hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility should be paid in the amount of $[ ].
[Signature] _______
Grantor _______
[Signatures] _______
Claimant(s) _______
The Director will agree to termination of the Trust when the owner or operator substitutes alternative financial assurance as specified in this section.
In Witness Whereof the parties have caused this Agreement to be executed by their respective officers duly authorized and their corporate seals to be hereunto affixed and attested as of the date first above written. The parties below certify that the wording of this Agreement is identical to the wording specified in APC&EC Rule No. 23 § 264.151(n) as such rules were constituted on the date first above written.
[Signature of Grantor]
[Title]
Attest:
[Title]
[Seal]
[Signature of Trustee]
Attest:
[Title]
[Seal]
State of _______
County of _______
On this [date], before me personally came [owner or operator] to me known, who, being by me duly sworn, did depose and say that she/he resides at [address], that she/he is [title] of [corporation], the corporation described in and which executed the above instrument; that she/he knows the seal of said corporation; that the seal affixed to such instrument is such corporate seal; that it was so affixed by order of the Board of Directors of said corporation, and that she/he signed her/his name thereto by like order.
[Signature of Notary Public]
The rules in this Subsection apply to owners and operators of all hazardous waste facilities that store containers of hazardous waste, except as § 264.1 provides otherwise.
[Comment: Under § 261.7 and § 261.33(c), if a hazardous waste is emptied from a container the residue remaining in the container is not considered a hazardous waste if the container is "empty" as defined in § 261.7. In that event, management of the container is exempt from the requirements of this Subsection.]
If a container holding hazardous waste is not in good condition (e.g., severe rusting, apparent structural defects) or if it begins to leak, the owner or operator must transfer the hazardous waste from this container to a container that is in good condition or manage the waste in some other way that complies with the requirements of this part.
The owner or operator must use a container made of or lined with materials which will not react with, and are otherwise compatible with, the hazardous waste to be stored, so that the ability of the container to contain the waste is not impaired.
[Comment: Reuse of containers in transportation is governed by U.S. Department of Transportation regulations including those set forth in 49 CFR 173.28.]
At least weekly, the owner or operator must inspect areas where containers are stored. The owner or operator must look for leaking containers and for deterioration of containers and the containment system caused by corrosion or other factors. See §§ 264.15(c) and 264.171 for remedial action required if deterioration or leaks are detected.
[Comment: If the collected material is a hazardous waste under Section 261, it must be managed as a hazardous waste in accordance with all applicable requirements of §§ 262-266 of this rule. If the collected material is discharged through a point source to waters of the United States, it is subject to the requirements of section 402 of the Clean Water Act, as amended.]
Containers holding ignitable or reactive waste must be located at least 15 meters (50 feet) from the facility's property line.
[Comment: See § 264.17(a) for additional requirements.]
[Comment: As required by § 264.13, the waste analysis plan must include analyses needed to comply with § 264.177. Also, § 264.17(c) requires wastes analyses, trial tests or other documentation to assure compliance with § 264.17(b). As required by § 264.73, the owner or operator must place the results of each waste analysis and trial test, and any documented information, in the operating record of the facility.]
[Comment: The purpose of this section is to prevent fires, explosions, gaseous emission, leaching, or other discharge of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents which could result from the mixing of incompatible wastes or materials if containers break or leak.]
At closure, all hazardous waste and hazardous waste residues must be removed from the containment system. Remaining containers, liners, bases, and soil containing or contaminated with hazardous waste or hazardous waste residues must be decontaminated or removed.
[Comment: At closure, as throughout the operating period, unless the owner or operator can demonstrate in accordance with § 261.3(d) of this rule that the solid waste removed from the containment system is not a hazardous waste, the owner or operator becomes a generator of hazardous waste and must manage it in accordance with all applicable requirements of Sections 262 through 266 of this rule].
The owner or operator shall manage all hazardous waste placed in a container in accordance with the requirements of subsections AA, BB, and CC of this Section.
The requirements of this Subsection apply to owners and operators of facilities that use tank systems for storing or treating hazardous waste except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section or in § 264.1 of this part.
[Note: The practices described in the American Petroleum Institute (API) Publication, Guide for Inspection of Refinery Equipment, Chapter XIII, "Atmospheric and Low-Pressure Storage Tanks," 4th edition, 1981, may be used, where applicable, as guidelines in conducting other than a leak test.]
[Note: The practices described in the National Association of Corrosion Engineers (NACE) standard, "Recommended Practice (RP-02-85) - Control of External Corrosion on Metallic Buried, Partially Buried, or Submerged Liquid Storage Systems," and the American Petroleum Institute (API) Publication 1632, "Cathodic Protection of Underground Petroleum Storage Tanks and Piping Systems," may be used, where applicable, as guidelines in providing corrosion protection for tank systems.]
All discrepancies must be remedied before the tank system is covered, enclosed, or placed in use.
[Note: The piping system installation procedures described in American Petroleum Institute (API) Publication 1615 (November 1979), "Installation of Underground Petroleum Storage Systems," or ANSI Standard B31.3, "Petroleum Refinery Piping," and ANSI Standard B31.4 "Liquid Petroleum Transportation Piping System," may be used, where applicable, as guidelines for proper installation of piping systems.]
[Note: If the collected material is a hazardous waste under Section 261 of this rule, it is subject to management as a hazardous waste in accordance with all applicable requirements of sections 262 through 265of this rule. If the collected material is discharged through a point source to waters of the State, it is subject to the requirements of sections 301, 304, and 402 of the Clean Water Act, as amended. If discharged to a Publicly Owned Treatment Works (POTW), it is subject to the requirements of section 307 of the Clean Water Act, as amended. If the collected material is released to the environment, it may be subject to the reporting requirements of 40 CFR part 302.]
[Note: The provisions outlined in the Steel Tank Institute's (STI) "Standard for Dual Wall Underground Steel Storage Tanks" may be used as guidelines for aspects of the design of underground steel double-walled tanks.]
[Note: The practices described in the American Petroleum Institute (API) Publication Guide for Inspection of Refinery Equipment, Chapter XIII, "Atmospheric and Low-Pressure Storage Tanks," 4th edition, 1981, may be used, where applicable, as guidelines for assessing the overall condition of the tank system.]
[Note: Section 264.15(c) requires the owner or operator to remedy any deterioration or malfunction he finds. Section 264.196 requires the owner or operator to notify the Director within 24 hours of confirming a leak. Also, 40 CFR part 302 may require the owner or operator to notify the National Response Center of a release.]
[Note: The practices described in the National Association of Corrosion Engineers (NACE) standard, "Recommended Practice (RP-02-85) - Control of External Corrosion on Metallic Buried, Partially Buried, or Submerged Liquid Storage Systems," and the American Petroleum Institute (API) Publication 1632, "Cathodic Protection of Underground Petroleum Storage Tanks and Piping Systems," may be used, where applicable, as guidelines in maintaining and inspecting cathodic protection systems.]
A tank system or secondary containment system from which there has been a leak or spill, or which is unfit for use, must be removed from service immediately, and the owner or operator must satisfy the following requirements:
[Note: The Director may, on the basis of any information received that there is or has been a release of hazardous waste, hazardous constituents, and/or hazardous substances into the environment, issue an order under the Arkansas Remedial Action Trust Fund Act (A.C.A. §§ 8-7-501et seq.) requiring corrective action or such other response as deemed necessary to protect human health or the environment.]
[Note: See § 264.15(c) for the requirements necessary to remedy a failure. Also, 40 CFR part 302 may require the owner or operator to notify the National Response Center of certain releases.]
The owner or operator shall manage all hazardous waste placed in a tank in accordance with the requirements of subsections AA, BB, and CC of this Section.
The rules in this Subsection apply to owners and operators of facilities that use surface impoundments to treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste except as § 264.1 provides otherwise.
Ignitable or reactive waste must not be placed in a surface impoundment, unless the waste and impoundment satisfy all applicable requirements of § 268 and 40 CFR Part 268, and:
Incompatible wastes, or incompatible wastes and materials, (see Appendix V of this Section for examples) must not be placed in the same surface impoundment, unless § 264.17(b) is complied with.
The owner or operator shall manage all hazardous waste placed in a surface impoundment in accordance with the requirements of subsections BB and CC of this Section.
Ignitable or reactive waste must not be place in a waste pile unless the waste and waste pile satisfy all applicable requirements of § 268 and 40 CFR part 268, and:
The rules in this Subsection apply to owners and operators of facilities that treat or dispose of hazardous waste in land treatment units, except as § 264.1 provides otherwise.
The Director will specify in the facility permit how the owner or operator will design, construct, operate, and maintain the land treatment unit in compliance with this section.
§§ 264.274 - 264.275 [Reserved]
The Director may allow the growth of food-chain crops in or on the treatment zone only if the owner or operator satisfies the conditions of this section. The Director will specify in the facility permit the specific food-chain crops which may be grown.
Time period | Annual Cd application rate (kilograms per hectare) |
Present to June 30, 1984 | 2.0 |
July 1, 1984 to Dec. 31, 1986 | 1.25 |
Beginning January 1, 1987 | 0.5 |
An owner or operator subject to this Subsection must establish an unsaturated zone monitoring program to discharge the following responsibilities:
The owner or operator must include hazardous waste application dates and rates in the operating record required under § 264.73.
The owner or operator must not apply ignitable or reactive waste to the treatment zone unless the waste and the treatment zone meet all applicable requirements of § 268 and 40 CFR Part 268, and:
The owner or operator must not place incompatible wastes, or incompatible wastes and materials (see Appendix V of this section for examples), in or on the same treatment zone, unless § 264.17(b) is complied with.
The rules in this Subsection apply to owners and operators of facilities that dispose of hazardous waste in landfills, except as § 264.1 provides otherwise.
The owner or operator of a landfill must maintain the following items in the operating record required under § 264.73:
Unless they are very small, such as an ampule, containers must be either:
Small containers of hazardous waste in overpacked drums (lab packs) may be placed in a landfill if the following requirements are met:
An incinerator burning hazardous waste must be designed, constructed, and maintained so that, when operated in accordance with operating requirements specified under § 264.345, it will meet the following performance standards:
where:
Win = mass feed rate of one principal organic hazardous constituent (POHC) in the waste stream feeding the incinerator, and
Wout = mass emission rate of the same POHC present in exhaust emissions prior to release to the atmosphere.
Where Pc is the corrected concentration of particulate matter, Pm is the measured concentration of particulate matter, and Y is the measured concentration of oxygen in the stack gas, using the Orsat method for oxygen analysis of dry flue gas, presented in part 60, Appendix A (Method 3), of this section. This correction procedure is to be used by all hazardous waste incinerators except those operating under conditions of oxygen enrichment. For these facilities, the Director will select an appropriate correction procedure, to be specified in the facility permit.
At closure the owner or operator must remove all hazardous waste and hazardous waste residues (including, but not limited to, ash, scrubber waters, and scrubber sludges) from the incinerator site.
[Comment: At closure, as throughout the operating period, unless the owner or operator can demonstrate, in accordance with § 261.3(d) of this rule, that the residue removed from the incinerator is not a hazardous waste, the owner or operator becomes a generator of hazardous waste and must manage it in accordance with applicable requirements of sections 262 through 266 of this rule.]
(This section is written in a special format to make it easier to understand the regulatory requirements. Like other Commission rules, this establishes enforceable legal requirements. For this section, "I" and "you" refer to the owner/operator.)
The plan must be reviewed and certified by an independent qualified Arkansas-registered professional engineer.
Note: A properly installed and maintained drip pad coating which is installed to meet the September 30, 1995 deadline should satisfy the eventual coating option of § 264.573(a)(4).
Owners and operators of new drip pads must ensure that the pads are designed, installed, and operated in accordance with one of the following:
Note: The Division will generally consider applicable standards established by professional organizations generally recognized by the industry such as the American Concrete Institute (ACI) or the American Society of Testing and Materials (ASTM) in judging the structural integrity requirement of this paragraph.
Note: See § 264.573(m) for remedial action required if deterioration or leakage is detected.
Note: See § 264.573(m) for remedial action required if deterioration or leakage is detected.
The requirements in this Subsection apply to owners and operators of facilities that treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste in miscellaneous units, except as § 264.1 provide otherwise.
A miscellaneous unit must be located, designed, constructed, operated, maintained, and closed in a manner that will ensure protection of human health and the environment. Permits for miscellaneous units are to contain such terms and provisions as necessary to protect human health and the environment, including, but not limited to, as appropriate, design and operating requirements, detection and monitoring requirements, and requirements for responses to releases of hazardous waste hazardous constituents from the unit. Permit terms and provisions must include those requirements of subsections I through O and subsections AA through CC of this section, Section 270 of this rule, 40 CFR Part 63 subpart EEE, and 40 CFR Part 146 that are appropriate for the miscellaneous unit being permitted. Protection of human health and the environment includes, but is not limited to
Monitoring, testing, analytical data, inspections, response, and reporting procedures and frequencies must ensure compliance with §§ 264.601, 264.15, 264.33, 264.75, 264.76, 264,77, and 264.101 as well as meet any additional requirements needed to protect human health and the environment as specified in the permit.
A miscellaneous unit that is a disposal unit must be maintained in a manner that complies with § 264.601 during the post-closure care period. In addition, if a treatment or storage unit has contaminated soils or ground water that cannot be completely removed or decontaminated during closure, then that unit must also meet the requirements of § 264.601 during post-closure care. The post-closure plan under § 264.118 must specify the procedures that will be used to satisfy this requirement.
[Note: The requirements of §§ 264.1032 through 264.1036 apply to process vents on hazardous waste recycling units previously exempt under § 261.6(c)(1). Other exemptions under §§ 261.4 and 264.1(g) are not affected by these requirements.]
As used in this Subsection, all terms not defined herein shall have the meaning given them in RCRA, the Act and sections 260-266, 268, 270, and 279 of this rule.
"Air stripping operation" is a desorption operation employed to transfer one or more volatile components from a liquid mixture into a gas (air) either with or without the application of heat to the liquid. Packed towers, spray towers, and bubble-cap, sieve, or valve-type plate towers are among the process configurations used for contacting the air and a liquid.
"Bottoms receiver" means a container or tank used to receive and collect the heavier bottoms fractions of the distillation feed stream that remain in the liquid phase.
"Closed-vent system" means a system that is not open to the atmosphere and that is composed of piping, connections, and, if necessary, flow-inducing devices that transport gas or vapor from a piece or pieces of equipment to a control device.
"Condenser" means a heat-transfer device that reduces a thermodynamic fluid from its vapor phase to its liquid phase.
"Connector" means flanged, screwed, welded, or other joined fittings used to connect two pipelines or a pipeline and a piece of equipment. For the purposes of reporting and recordkeeping, connector means flanged fittings that are not covered by insulation or other materials that prevent location of the fittings.
"Continuous recorder" means a data-recording device recording an instantaneous data value at least once every 15 minutes.
"Control device" means an enclosed combustion device, vapor recovery system, or flare. Any device the primary function of which is the recovery or capture of solvents or other organics for use, reuse, or sale (e.g., a primary condenser on a solvent recovery unit) is not a control device.
"Control device shutdown" means the cessation of operation of a control device for any purpose.
"Distillate receiver'' means a container or tank used to receive and collect liquid material (condensed) from the overhead condenser of a distillation unit and from which the condensed liquid is pumped to larger storage tanks or other process units.
"Distillation operation" means an operation, either batch or continuous, separating one or more feed stream(s) into two or more exit streams, each exit stream having component concentrations different from those in the feed stream(s). The separation is achieved by the redistribution of the components between the liquid and vapor phase as they approach equilibrium within the distillation unit.
"Double block and bleed system" means two block valves connected in series with a bleed valve or line that can vent the line between the two block valves.
"Equipment" means each valve, pump, compressor, pressure relief device, sampling connection system, open-ended valve or line, or flange or other connector, and any control devices or systems required by this Subsection.
"Flame zone" means the portion of the combustion chamber in a boiler occupied by the flame envelope.
"Flow indicator" means a device that indicates whether gas flow is present in a vent stream.
"First attempt at repair" means to take rapid action for the purpose of stopping or reducing leakage of organic material to the atmosphere using best practices.
"Fractionation operation" means a distillation operation or method used to separate a mixture of several volatile components of different boiling points in successive stages, each stage removing from the mixture some proportion of one of the components.
"Hazardous waste management unit shutdown" means a work practice or operational procedure that stops operation of a hazardous waste management unit or part of a hazardous waste management unit. An unscheduled work practice or operational procedure that stops operation of a hazardous waste management unit or part of a hazardous waste management unit for less than 24 hours is not a hazardous waste management unit shutdown. The use of spare equipment and technically feasible bypassing of equipment without stopping operation are not hazardous waste management unit shutdowns.
"Hot well'' means a container for collecting condensate as in a steam condenser serving a vacuum-jet or steam-jet ejector.
"In gas/vapor service'' means that the piece of equipment contains or contacts a hazardous waste stream that is in the gaseous state at operating conditions.
''In heavy liquid service" means that the piece of equipment is not in gas/vapor service or in light liquid service.
"In light liquid service" means that the piece of equipment contains or contacts a waste stream where the vapor pressure of one or more of the components in the stream is greater than 0.3 kilopascals (kPa) at 20°C, the total concentration of the pure organic components having a vapor pressure greater than 0.3 kPa at 20 °C is equal to or greater than 20 percent by weight, and the fluid is a liquid at operating conditions.
"In situ sampling systems" means nonextractive samplers or in-line samplers.
"In vacuum service" means that equipment is operating at an internal pressure that is at least 5 kPa below ambient pressure.
"Malfunction" means any sudden failure of a control device or a hazardous waste management unit or failure of a hazardous waste management unit to operate in a normal or usual manner, so that organic emissions are increased.
"Open-ended valve or line" means any valve, except pressure relief valves, having one side of the valve seat in contact with hazardous waste and one side open to the atmosphere, either directly or through open piping.
"Pressure release" means the emission of materials resulting from the system pressure being greater than the set pressure of the pressure relief device.
"Process heater" means a device that transfers heat liberated by burning fuel to fluids contained in tubes, including all fluids except water that are heated to produce steam.
"Process vent'' means any open-ended pipe or stack that is vented to the atmosphere either directly, through a vacuum-producing system, or through a tank (e.g., distillate receiver, condenser, bottoms receiver, surge control tank, separator tank, or hot well) associated with hazardous waste distillation, fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or steam stripping operations.
"Repaired" means that equipment is adjusted, or otherwise altered, to eliminate a leak.
"Sampling connection" system means an assembly of equipment within a process or waste management unit used during periods of representative operation to take samples of the process or waste fluid. Equipment used to take non-routine grab samples is not considered a sampling connection system.
"Sensor'' means a device that measures a physical quantity or the change in a physical quantity, such as temperature, pressure, flow rate, pH, or liquid level.
"Separator tank" means a device used for separation of two immiscible liquids.
"Solvent extraction operation" means an operation or method of separation in which a solid or solution is contacted with a liquid solvent (the two being mutually insoluble) to preferentially dissolve and transfer one or more components into the solvent.
"Startup'' means the setting in operation of a hazardous waste management unit or control device for any purpose.
"Steam stripping operation" means a distillation operation in which vaporization of the volatile constituents of a liquid mixture takes place by the introduction of steam directly into the charge.
"Surge control tank" means a large-sized pipe or storage reservoir sufficient to contain the surging liquid discharge of the process tank to which it is connected.
"Thin-film evaporation operation" means a distillation operation that employs a heating surface consisting of a large diameter tube that may be either straight or tapered, horizontal or vertical. Liquid is spread on the tube wall by a rotating assembly of blades that maintain a close clearance from the wall or actually ride on the film of liquid on the wall.
"Vapor incinerator" means any enclosed combustion device that is used for destroying organic compounds and does not extract energy in the form of steam or process heat.
"Vented" means discharged through an opening, typically an open-ended pipe or stack, allowing the passage of a stream of liquids, gases, or fumes into the atmosphere. The passage of liquids, gases, or fumes is caused by mechanical means such as compressors or vacuum-producing systems or by process-related means such as evaporation produced by heating and not caused by tank loading and unloading (working losses) or by natural means such as diurnal temperature changes.
where:
HT=Net heating value of the sample, MJ/scm; where the net enthalpy per mole of offgas is based on combustion at 25 °C and 760 mm Hg, but the standard temperature for determining the volume corresponding to 1 mol is 20 °C;
K=Constant, 1.74X10-7 (1/ppm) (g mol/scm) (MJ/kcal) where standard temperature for (g mol/scm) is 20 °C;
Ci=Concentration of sample component i in ppm on a wet basis, as measured for organics by Reference Method 18 in 40 CFR part 60 and measured for hydrogen and carbon monoxide by ASTM D 1946-82 (incorporated by reference as specified in § 260.11); and
Hi=Net heat of combustion of sample component i, kcal/9 mol at 25 °C and 760 mm Hg. The heats of combustion may be determined using ASTM D 2382-83 (incorporated by reference as specified in § 260.11) if published values are not available or cannot be calculated.
where:
28.8=Constant,
31.7=Constant,
HT =The net heating value as determined in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
where:
8.706=Constant,
0.7084=Constant,
HT =The net heating value as determined in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
where:
Eh=Total organic mass flow rate, kg/h;
Qsd=Volumetric flow rate of gases entering or exiting control device, as determined by Method 2, dscm/h;
n=Number of organic compounds in the vent gas;
Ci=Organic concentration in ppm, dry basis, of compound i in the vent gas, as determined by Method 18;
MWi=Molecular weight of organic compound i in the vent gas, kg/kg-mol;
0. 0416=Conversion factor for molar volume, kg-mol/m3 (@ 293 K and 760 mm Hg);
10-6=Conversion from ppm, ppm-1.
Where:
Eh = Total organic mass flow rate, kg/h;
Q = Volumetric flow rate of gases entering or exiting control device,as determined by Method 2, dscm/h;
C = Organic concentration in ppm, dry basis, as determined by Method 25A;
MW = Molecular weight of propane, 44;
0.0416 = Conversion factor for molar volume, kg-mol/m3 (@ 293 K and 760 mm Hg);
10-6 = Conversion from ppm.
where:
EA=Total organic mass emission rate, kg/y;
Eh=Total organic mass flow rate for the process vent, kg/h;
H=Total annual hours of operations for the affected unit, h.
[Note: The requirements of §§ 264.1052 through 264.1065 apply to equipment associated with hazardous waste recycling units previously exempt under § 261.6(c)(1). Other exemptions under §§ 261.4 and 264.1(g) are not affected by these requirements.]
As used in this Subsection, all terms shall have the meaning given in § 264.1031, RCRA, the Act, and §§ 260-263 of this rule.
As used in this subsection, all terms shall have the meaning given to them in 40 CFR 265.1081, the Act, and Sections 260 through 266 of this rule.
Examples of normal operating conditions that may require these devices to open are during those times when the internal pressure of the container exceeds the internal pressure operating range for the container as a result of loading operations or diurnal ambient temperature fluctuations.
The written report shall include the EPA identification number, facility name and address, and an explanation why the control device could not be returned to compliance within 24 hours, and actions taken to correct the noncompliance. The report shall be signed and dated by an authorized representative of the owner or operator.
The requirements of this subsection apply to owners or operators who store or treat hazardous waste in units designed and operated under § 264.1101 of this subpart. The owner or operator is not subject to the definition of land disposal in RCRA section 3004(k) provided that the unit:
(Containment buildings can serve as secondary containment systems for tanks placed within the building under certain conditions. A containment building can serve as an external liner system for a tank, provided it meets the requirements of § 264.193(e)(1). In addition, the containment building must meet the requirements of § 264.193(b) and §§ 264.193(c) (1) and (2) to be considered an acceptable secondary containment system for a tank.)
The requirements of this subsection apply to owners or operators who store munitions and explosive hazardous wastes, except as § 264.1 provides otherwise. (NOTE: Depending on explosive hazards, hazardous waste munitions and explosives may also be managed in other types of storage units, including containment buildings (Section 264, subsection DD), tanks (Section 264, subsection J), or containers (Section 264, subsection I); See § 266.205 for storage of waste military munitions).
Appendices to Section 264
Appendix I -- Recordkeeping Instructions
The recordkeeping provisions of § 264.73 specify that an owner or operator must keep a written operating record at his facility. This appendix provides additional instructions for keeping portions of the operating record. See § 264.73(b) for additional recordkeeping requirements.
The following information must be recorded, as it becomes available, and maintained in the operating record until closure of the facility in the following manner:
Records of each hazardous waste received, treated, stored, or disposed of at the facility which include the following:
Each hazardous waste listed in Section 261, subsection D, of this chapter, and each hazardous waste characteristic defined in Section 261, subsection C, of this chapter, has a four-digit EPA Hazardous Waste Number assigned to it. This number must be used for recordkeeping and reporting purposes. Where a hazardous waste contains more than one listed hazardous waste, or where more than one hazardous waste characteristic applies to the waste, the waste description must include all applicable EPA Hazardous Waste Numbers.
Table 1
Unit of measure | Code1 |
Gallons | G |
Gallons per Hour | E |
Gallons per Day | U |
Liters | L |
Liters per Hour | H |
Liters per Day | V |
Short Tons per Hour | D |
Metric Tons per Hour | W |
Short Tons per Day | N |
Metric Tons per Day | S |
Pounds per Hour | J |
Kilograms per Hour | R |
Cubic Yards | Y |
Cubic Meters | C |
Acres | B |
Acre-feet | A |
Hectares | Q |
Hectare-meter | F |
Btu's per Hour | I |
Pounds | P |
Short Tons | T |
Kilograms | K |
Tons | M |
FOOTNOTE: 1Single digit symbols are used here for data processing purposes.
Table 2.
Handling Codes for Treatment, Storage and Disposal Methods
Enter the handling code(s) listed below that most closely represents the technique(s) used at the facility to treat, store or dispose of each quantity of hazardous waste received.
S01 | Container (barrel, drum, etc.) |
S02 | Tank |
S03 | Waste Pile |
S04 | Surface Impoundment |
S05 | Drip Pad |
S06 | Containment Building (Storage) |
S99 | Other Storage (specify) |
T06 | Liquid injection incinerator |
T07 | Rotary kiln incinerator |
T08 | Fluidized bed incinerator |
T09 | Multiple hearth incinerator |
T10 | Infrared furnace incinerator |
T11 | Molten salt destructor |
T12 | Pyrolysis |
T13 | Wet air oxidation |
T14 | Calcination |
T15 | Microwave discharge |
T18 | Other (specify) |
T19 | Absorption mound |
T20 | Absorption field |
T21 | Chemical fixation |
T22 | Chemical oxidation |
T23 | Chemical precipitation |
T24 | Chemical reduction |
T25 | Chlorination |
T26 | Chlorinolysis |
T27 | Cyanide destruction |
T28 | Degradation |
T29 | Detoxification |
T30 | Ion exchange |
T31 | Neutralization |
T32 | Ozonation |
T33 | Photolysis |
T34 | Other (specify) |
T35 | Centrifugation |
T36 | Clarification |
T37 | Coagulation |
T38 | Decanting |
T39 | Encapsulation |
T40 | Filtration |
T41 | Flocculation |
T42 | Flotation |
T43 | Foaming |
T44 | Sedimentation |
T45 | Thickening |
T46 | Ultrafiltration |
T47 | Other (specify) |
T48 | Absorption-molecular sieve |
T49 | Activated carbon |
T50 | Blending |
T51 | Catalysis |
T52 | Crystallization |
T53 | Dialysis |
T54 | Distillation |
T55 | Electrodialysis |
T56 | Electrolysis |
T57 | Evaporation |
T58 | High gradient magnetic separation |
T59 | Leaching |
T60 | Liquid ion exchange |
T61 | Liquid-liquid extraction |
T62 | Reverse osmosis |
T63 | Solvent recovery |
T64 | Stripping |
T65 | Sand filter |
T66 | Other (specify) |
T67 | Activated sludge |
T68 | Aerobic lagoon |
T69 | Aerobic tank |
T70 | Anaerobic tank |
T71 | Composting |
T72 | Septic tank |
T73 | Spray irrigation |
T74 | Thickening filter |
T75 | Trickling filter |
T76 | Waste stabilization pond |
T77 | Other (specify) |
T78 | [Reserved] |
T79 | [Reserved] |
T80 | Boiler |
T81 | Cement Kiln |
T82 | Lime Kiln |
T83 | Aggregate Kiln |
T84 | Phosphate Kiln |
T85 | Coke Oven |
T86 | Blast Furnace |
T87 | Smelting, Melting, or Refining Furnace |
T88 | Titanium Dioxide Chloride Process Oxidation Reactor |
T89 | Methane Reforming Furnace |
T90 | Pulping Liquor Recovery Furnace |
T91 | Combustion Device Used in the Recovery of Sulfur Values from Spent Sulfuric Acid |
T92 | Halogen Acid Furnaces |
T93 | Other Industrial Furnaces Listed in 40 CFR 260.10 (specify) |
T94 | Containment Building (Treatment) |
D79 | Underground Injection |
D80 | Landfill |
D81 | Land Treatment |
D82 | Ocean Disposal |
D83 | Surface Impoundment (to be closed as a landfill) |
D99 | Other Disposal (specify) |
X01 | Open Burning/Open Detonation |
X02 | Mechanical Processing |
X03 | Thermal Unit |
X04 | Geologic Repository |
X99 | Other Subpart X (specify) |
Appendices II -- III [Reserved]
Appendix IV -- Cochran's Approximation to the Behrens-Fisher Students' T-Test. Using all the available background data (nb readings), calculate the background mean (Xb) and background variance (sb2). For the single monitoring well under investigation (nm reading), calculate the monitoring mean (Xm) and monitoring variance (sm2).
For any set of data (X1, X2, . . ., Xn) the mean is calculated by:
and the variance is calculated by:
where "n" denotes the number of observations in the set of data.
The t-test uses these data summary measures to calculate a t-statistic (t*) and a comparison t-statistic (tc). The value is compared to the value and a conclusion reached as to whether there has been a statistically significant change in any indicator parameter.
The t-statistic for all parameters except pH and similar monitoring parameters is:
If the value of this t-statistic is negative then there is no significant difference between the monitoring data and background data. It should be noted that significantly small negative values may be indicative of a failure of the assumption made for test validity or errors have been made in collecting the background data.
The t-statistic (tc), against which t* will be compared, necessitates finding tb and tm from standard (one-tailed) tables where,
tb = t-tables with (nb - 1) degrees of freedom, at the 0.05 level of significance.
tm = t-tables with (nm - 1) degrees of freedom, at the 0.05 level of significance.
Finally, the special weightings Wb and Wm are defined as:
and so the comparison t-statistic is:
The t-statistic (t*) is now compared with the comparison t-statistic (tc) using the following decision-rule:
If t* is equal to or larger than tc, then conclude that there most likely has been a significant increase in this specific parameter.
If t* is less than tc, then conclude that most likely there has not been a change in this specific parameter.
The t-statistic for testing pH and similar monitoring parameters is constructed in the same manner as previously described except the negative sign (if any) is discarded and the caveat concerning the negative value is ignored. The standard (two-tailed) tables are used in the construction for pH and similar monitoring parameters.
If t* is equal to or larger than tc, then conclude that there most likely has been a significant increase (if the initial t* had been negative, this would imply a significant decrease). If t* is less than tc, then conclude that there most likely has been no change.
A further discussion of the test may be found in Statistical Methods (6th Edition, Section 4.14) by G. W. Snedecor and W. G. Cochran, or Principles and Procedures of Statistics (1st Edition, Section 5.8) by R. G. D. Steel and J. H. Torrie.
Standard T-Tables 0.05 Level of Significance
Degrees of freedom | t-values (one-tail) | t-values (two-tail) |
1 | 6.314 | 12.706 |
2 | 2.920 | 4.303 |
3 | 2.353 | 3.182 |
4 | 2.132 | 2.776 |
5 | 2.015 | 2.571 |
6 | 1.943 | 2.447 |
7 | 1.895 | 2.365 |
8 | 1.860 | 2.306 |
9 | 1.833 | 2.262 |
10 | 1.812 | 2.228 |
11 | 1.796 | 2.201 |
12 | 1.782 | 2.179 |
13 | 1.771 | 2.160 |
14 | 1.761 | 2.145 |
15 | 1.753 | 2.131 |
16 | 1.746 | 2.120 |
17 | 1.740 | 2.110 |
18 | 1.734 | 2.101 |
19 | 1.729 | 2.093 |
20 | 1.725 | 2.086 |
21 | 1.721 | 2.080 |
22 | 1.717 | 2.074 |
23 | 1.714 | 2.069 |
24 | 1.711 | 2.064 |
25 | 1.708 | 2.060 |
30 | 1.697 | 2.042 |
40 | 1.684 |
Adopted from Table III of "Statistical Tables for Biological, Agricultural, and Medical Research" (1947, R. A. Fisher and F. Yates).
Appendix V -- Examples of Potentially Incompatible Waste
Many hazardous wastes, when mixed with other waste or materials at a hazardous waste facility, can produce effects which are harmful to human health and the environment, such as (1) heat or pressure, (2) fire or explosion, (3) violent reaction, (4) toxic dusts, mists, fumes, or gases, or (5) flammable fumes or gases.
Below are examples of potentially incompatible wastes, waste components, and materials, along with the harmful consequences which result from mixing materials in one group with materials in another group. The list is intended as a guide to owners or operators of treatment, storage, and disposal facilities, and to enforcement and permit granting officials, to indicate the need for special precautions when managing these potentially incompatible waste materials or components.
This list is not intended to be exhaustive. An owner or operator must, as the regulations require, adequately analyze his wastes so that he can avoid creating uncontrolled substances or reactions of the type listed below, whether they are listed below or not.
It is possible for potentially incompatible wastes to be mixed in a way that precludes a reaction (e.g., adding acid to water rather than water to acid) or that neutralizes them (e.g., a strong acid mixed with a strong base), or that controls substances produced (e.g., by generating flammable gases in a closed tank equipped so that ignition cannot occur, and burning the gases in an incinerator).
In the lists below, the mixing of a Group A material with a Group B material may have the potential consequence as noted.
Group 1-A
Acetylene sludge
Alkaline caustic liquids
Alkaline cleaner
Alkaline corrosive liquids
Alkaline corrosive battery fluid
Caustic wastewater
Lime sludge and other corrosive alkalies
Lime wastewater
Lime and water
Spent caustic
Group 1-B
Acid sludge
Acid and water
Battery acid
Chemical cleaners
Electrolyte, acid
Etching acid liquid or solvent
Pickling liquor and other corrosive acids
Spent acid
Spent mixed acid
Spent sulfuric acid
Potential consequences: Heat generation; violent reaction.
Group 2-A
Aluminum
Beryllium
Calcium
Lithium
Magnesium
Potassium
Sodium
Zinc powder Other reactive metals and metal hydrides
Group 2-B
Any waste in Group 1-A or 1-B
Potential consequences: Fire or explosion; generation of flammable hydrogen gas.
Group 3-A
Alcohols
Water
Group 3-B
Any concentrated waste in Groups 1-A or 1-B
Calcium
Lithium
Metal hydrides
Potassium
SO2Cl2, SOCl2, PCl3, CH3SiCl3
Other water-reactive waste
Potential consequences: Fire, explosion, or heat generation; generation of flammable or toxic gases.
Group 4-A
Alcohols
Aldehydes
Halogenated hydrocarbons
Nitrated hydrocarbons
Unsaturated hydrocarbons
Other reactive organic compounds and solvents
Group 4-B
Concentrated Group 1-A or 1-B wastes
Group 2-A wastes
Potential consequences: Fire, explosion, or violent reaction.
Group 5-A
Spent cyanide and sulfide solutions
Group 5-B
Group 1-B wastes
Potential consequences: Generation of toxic hydrogen cyanide or hydrogen sulfide gas.
Group 6-A
Chlorates
Chlorine
Chlorites
Chromic acid
Hypochlorites
Nitrates
Nitric acid, fuming
Perchlorates
Permanganates
Peroxides
Other strong oxidizers
Group 6-B
Acetic acid and other organic acids
Concentrated mineral acids
Group 2-A wastes
Group 4-A wastes
Other flammable and combustible wastes
Potential consequences: Fire, explosion, or violent reaction.
Source: "Law, Regulations, and Guidelines for Handling of Hazardous Waste." California Department of Health, February 1975.
Appendix VI -- Political Jurisdictions in Which Compliance With § 264.18(a) Must Be Demonstrated
None Listed.
Appendices VII - VIII [Reserved]
§ 264 Appendix IX
Groundwater Monitoring List1
Common name1 | CAS RN2 | Chemical abstracts service index name3 |
Acenaphthene | 83-32-9 | Acenaphthylene, 1,2-dihydro- |
Acenaphthylene | 208-96-8 | Acenaphthylene |
Acetone | 67-64-1 | 2-Propanone |
Acetophenone | 98-86-2 | Ethanone, 1-phenyl- |
Acetonitrile; Methyl cyanide | 75-05-8 | Acetonitrile |
2-Acetylaminofluorene; 2-AAF | 53-96-3 | Acetamide, N-9H-fluoren-2-yl- |
Acrolein | 107-02-8 | 2-Propenal |
Acrylonitrile | 107-13-1 | 2-Propenenitrile |
Aldrin | 309-00-2 | 1,4:5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10- hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro- (1[ALPHA],4[ALPHA],4a[BETA],5[ALPHA],8[ALPHA],8a[BETA])- |
Allyl chloride | 107-05-1 | 1-Propene, 3-chloro- |
4-Aminobiphenyl | 92-67-1 | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4-amine |
Aniline | 62-53-3 | Benzenamine |
Anthracene | 120-12-7 | Anthracene |
Antimony | (Total) | Antimony |
Aramite | 140-57-8 | Sulfurous acid, 2-chloroethyl 2-[4-(1,1-dimethylethyl) phenoxy]-1-methylethyl ester |
Arsenic | (Total) | Arsenic |
Barium | (Total) | Barium |
Benzene | 71-43-2 | Benzene |
Benzo[a]anthracene; Benzanthracene | 56-55-3 | Benz[a]anthracene |
Benzo[b]fluoranthene | 205-99-2 | Benz[e]acephenanthrylene |
Benzo[k]fluoranthene | 207-08-9 | Benzo[k]fluoranthene |
Benzo[ghi]perylene | 191-24-2 | Benzo[ghi]perylene |
Benzo[a]pyrene | 50-32-8 | Benzo[a]pyrene |
Benzyl alcohol | 100-51-6 | Benzenemethanol |
Beryllium | (Total) | Beryllium |
alpha-BHC | 319-84-6 | Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-,(1[ALPHA],2[ALPHA],3[BETA],4[BETA],5[BETA],6[BETA])- |
beta-BHC | 319-85-7 | Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-,(1[ALPHA],2[BETA],3[ALPHA],4[BETA],5[ALPHA],6[BETA])- |
delta-BHC | 319-86-8 | Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-,(1[ALPHA],2[ALPHA],3[ALPHA],4[BETA],5[ALPHA],6[BETA])- |
gamma-BHC; Lindane | 58-89-9 | Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-,(1[ALPHA],2[ALPHA],3[BETA],4[ALPHA],5[ALPHA],6[BETA])- |
Bis(2-chloroethoxy)methane | 111-91-1 | Ethane, 1,1'-[methylenebis(oxy)]bis [2-chloro- |
Bis(2-chloroethyl)ether | 111-44-4 | Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis[2-chloro- |
Bis(2-chloro-1-methylethyl) ether; 2,2'-Dichlorodiisopropyl ether | 108-60-1 | Propane, 2,2'-oxybis[1-chloro- |
Bis(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate | 117-81-7 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis(2-ethylhexyl)ester |
Bromodichloromethane | 75-27-4 | Methane, bromodichloro- |
Bromoform; Tribromomethane | 75-25-2 | Methane, tribromo- |
4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether | 101-55-3 | Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy- |
Butyl benzyl phthalate; Benzyl butyl phthalate | 85-68-7 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, butyl phenylmethyl ester |
Cadmium | (Total) | Cadmium |
Carbon disulfide | 75-15-0 | Carbon disulfide |
Carbon tetrachloride | 56-23-5 | Methane, tetrachloro- |
Chlordane | 57-74-9 | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octachloro-2,3,3a,4,7,7a -hexahydro- |
p-Chloroaniline | 106-47-8 | Benzenamine, 4-chloro- |
Chlorobenzene | 108-90-7 | Benzene, chloro- |
Chlorobenzilate | 510-15-6 | Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-[ALPHA]-(4-chlorophenyl)-[ALPHA]-hydroxy-, ethyl ester |
p-Chloro-m-cresol | 59-50-7 | Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl- |
Chloroethane; Ethyl chloride | 75-00-3 | Ethane, chloro- |
Chloroform | 67-66-3 | Methane, trichloro- |
2-Chloronaphthalene | 91-58-7 | Naphthalene, 2-chloro- |
2-Chlorophenol | 95-57-8 | Phenol, 2-chloro- |
4-Chlorophenyl phenyl ether | 7005-72-3 | Benzene, 1-chloro-4-phenoxy- |
Chloroprene | 126-99-8 | 1,3-Butadiene,2-chloro- |
Chromium | (Total) | Chromium |
Chrysene | 218-01-9 | Chrysene |
Cobalt | (Total) | Cobalt |
Copper | (Total) | Copper |
m-Cresol | 108-39-4 | Phenol, 3-methyl- |
o-Cresol | 95-48-7 | Phenol, 2-methyl- |
p-Cresol | 106-44-5 | Phenol, 4-methyl- |
Cyanide | 57-12-5 | Cyanide |
2,4-D; 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid | 94-75-7 | Acetic acid, (2,4-dichlorophenoxy)- |
4,4'-DDD | 72-54-8 | Benzene 1,1'-(2,2-dichloroethylidene) bis[4-chloro- |
4,4'-DDE | 72-55-9 | Benzene, 1,1'-(dichloroethenylidene) bis[4-chloro- |
4,4'-DDT | 50-29-3 | Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene) bis[4-chloro- |
Diallate | 2303-16-4 | Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S- (2,3-dichloro-2-propenyl) ester |
Dibenz[a,h]anthracene | 53-70-3 | Dibenz[a,h]anthracene |
Dibenzofuran | 132-64-9 | Dibenzofuran |
Dibromochloromethane; Chlorodibromomethane | 124-48-1 | Methane, dibromochloro- |
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane; | 96-12-8 | Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro- |
DBCP | ||
1,2-Dibromoethane; Ethylene dibromide | 106-93-4 | Ethane, 1,2-dibromo- |
Di-n-butyl phthalate | 84-74-2 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester |
o-Dichlorobenzene | 95-50-1 | Benzene, 1,2-dichloro- |
m-Dichlorobenzene | 541-73-1 | Benzene, 1,3-dichloro- |
p-Dichlorobenzene | 106-46-7 | Benzene, 1,4-dichloro- |
3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine | 91-94-1 | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dichloro- |
trans-1,4-Dichloro-2-butene | 110-57-6 | 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro-, (E)- |
Dichlorodifluoromethane | 75-71-8 | Methane, dichlorodifluoro- |
1,1-Dichloroethane | 75-34-3 | Ethane, 1,1-dichloro- |
1,2-Dichloroethane; Ethylene dichloride | 107-06-2 | Ethane, 1,2-dichloro- |
1,1-Dichloroethylene; Vinylidene chloride | 75-35-4 | Ethene, 1,1-dichloro- |
trans-1,2-Dichloroethylene | 156-60-5 | Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-, (E)- |
2,4-Dichlorophenol | 120-83-2 | Phenol, 2,4-dichloro- |
2,6-Dichlorophenol | 87-65-0 | Phenol, 2,6-dichloro- |
1,2-Dichloropropane | 78-87-5 | Propane, 1,2-dichloro- |
cis-1,3-Dichloropropene | 10061-01-5 | 1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro-, (Z)- |
trans-1,3-Dichloropropene | 10061-02-6 | 1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro-, (E)- |
Dieldrin | 60-57-1 | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth [2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1a[ALPHA],2[BETA],2a[ALPHA],3[BETA],6[BETA];,6a[ALPHA],7[BETA],7a[ALPHA])- |
Diethyl phthalate | 84-66-2 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester |
O,O-Diethyl O-2-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate; Thionazin | 297-97-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester |
Dimethoate | 60-51-5 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-[2-(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl] ester |
p-(Dimethylamino)azobenzene | 60-11-7 | Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)- |
7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]anthracene | 57-97-6 | Benz[a]anthracene, 7,12-dimethyl- |
3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine | 119-93-7 | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethyl- |
alpha, alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine | 122-09-8 | Benzeneethanamine, [ALPHA],[ALPHA]-dimethyl- |
2,4-Dimethylphenol | 105-67-9 | Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl- |
Dimethyl phthalate | 131-11-3 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester |
m-Dinitrobenzene | 99-65-0 | Benzene, 1,3-dinitro- |
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol | 534-52-1 | Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro- |
2,4-Dinitrophenol | 51-28-5 | Phenol, 2,4-dinitro- |
2,4-Dinitrotoluene | 121-14-2 | Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro- |
2,6-Dinitrotoluene | 606-20-2 | Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro- |
Dinoseb; DNBP; 2-sec-Butyl-4,6-dinitrophenol | 88-85-7 | Phenol, 2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitro- |
Di-n-octyl phthalate | 117-84-0 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dioctyl ester |
1,4-Dioxane | 123-91-1 | 1,4-Dioxane |
Diphenylamine | 122-39-4 | Benzenamine, N-phenyl- |
Disulfoton | 298-04-4 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[2-(ethylthio)ethyl]ester |
Endosulfan I | 959-98-8 6,9-Methano-2,4,3- benzodioxathiepin, 6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-oxide,(3[ALPHA],5a[BETA],6[ALPHA],9[ALPHA],9a[BETA])- | |
Endosulfan II | 33213-65-9 | 6,9-Methano-2,4,3- benzodioxathiepin, 6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-oxide, (3[ALPHA],5a[ALPHA],6[BETA],9[BETA],9a[ALPHA])- |
Endosulfan sulfate | 1031-07-8 | 6,9-Methano-2,4,3- benzodioxathiepin, 6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3,3-dioxide |
Endrin | 72-20-8 | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-,1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1a[ALPHA],2[BETA],2a[BETA],3[ALPHA],6[ALPHA],6a[BETA],7[BETA], 7a[ALPHA])- |
Endrin aldehyde | 7421-93-4 | 1,2,4- Methenocyclopenta[cd] pentalene-5-carboxaldehyde, 2,2a,3,3,4,7-hexachlorodecahydro-,(1[ALPHA],2[BETA],2a[BETA],4[BETA],4a[BETA],5[BETA],6a[BETA],6b[BETA],7R*)- |
Ethylbenzene | 100-41-4 | Benzene, ethyl- |
Ethyl methacrylate | 97-63-2 | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester |
Ethyl methanesulfonate | 62-50-0 | Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester |
Famphur | 52-85-7 | Phosphorothioic acid, O-[4-[(dimethylamino)sulfonyl]phenyl]-O,O-dimethyl ester |
Fluoranthene | 206-44-0 | Fluoranthene |
Fluorene | 86-73-7 | 9H-Fluorene |
Heptachlor | 76-44-8 | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro- |
Heptachlor epoxide | 1024-57- 2,5-Methano-2H-indeno[1,2-b] oxirene, 3 2,3,4,5,6,7,7-heptachloro-1a,1b,5,5a,6,6a,-hexahydro-, (1a[ALPHA],1b[BETA],2[ALPHA],5[ALPHA],5a[BETA],6[BETA],6a[ALPHA]) | |
Hexachlorobenzene | 118-74-1 | Benzene, hexachloro- |
Hexachlorobutadiene | 87-68-3 | 1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro- |
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene | 77-47-4 | 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro- |
Hexachloroethane | 67-72-1 | Ethane, hexachloro- |
Hexachlorophene | 70-30-4 | Phenol, 2,2'-methylenebis[3,4,6-trichloro- |
Hexachloropropene | 1888-71-7 | 1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-hexachloro- |
2-Hexanone | 591-78-6 | 2-Hexanone |
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene | 193-39-5 | Indeno[1,2,3-cd]pyrene |
Isobutyl alcohol | 78-83-1 | 1-Propanol, 2-methyl- |
Isodrin | 465-73-6 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene,1,2,3,4,1 0,10- hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a hexahydro-(1[ALPHA], 4[ALPHA], 4a[BETA], 5[BETA], 8[BETA], 8a[BETA])- | |
Isophorone | 78-59-1 | 2-Cyclohexen-1-one, 3,5,5-trimethyl- |
Isosafrole | 120-58-1 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-propenyl)- |
Kepone | 143-50-0 | 1,3,4-Metheno-2H-cyclobuta-[cd]pentalen-2-one, 1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-decachlorooctahydro- |
Lead | (Total) | Lead |
Mercury | (Total) | Mercury |
Methacrylonitrile | 126-98-7 | 2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl- |
Methapyrilene | 91-80-5 | 1,2,Ethanediamine,N,N-dimethyl-N'-2-pyridinyl-N'-(2-thienylmethyl)- |
Methoxychlor | 72-43-5 | Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2,trichloroethylidene)bis [4-methoxy- |
Methyl bromide; Bromomethane | 74-83-9 | Methane, bromo- |
Methyl chloride; Chloromethane | 74-87-3 | Methane, chloro- |
3-Methylcholanthrene | 56-49-5 | Benz[j]aceanthrylene, 1,2-dihydro-3-methyl- |
Methylene bromide; Dibromomethane | 74-95-3 | Methane, dibromo- |
Methylene chloride; Dichloromethane | 75-09-2 | Methane, dichloro- |
Methyl ethyl ketone; MEK; | 78-93-3 | 2-Butanone |
Methyl iodide; Iodomethane | 74-88-4 | Methane, iodo- |
Methyl methacrylate | 80-62-6 | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester |
Methyl methanesulfonate | 66-27-3 | Methanesulfonic acid, methyl ester |
2-Methylnaphthalene | 91-57-6 | Naphthalene, 2-methyl- |
Methyl parathion; Parathion methyl | 298-00-0 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
4-Methyl-2-pentanone; Methyl isobutyl ketone | 108-10-1 | 2-Pentanone, 4-methyl- |
Naphthalene | 91-20-3 | Naphthalene |
1,4-Naphthoquinone | 130-15-4 | 1,4-Naphthalenedione |
1-Naphthylamine | 134-32-7 | 1-Naphthalenamine |
2-Naphthylamine | 91-59-8 | 2-Naphthalenamine |
Nickel | (Total) | Nickel |
o-Nitroaniline | 88-74-4 | Benzenamine, 2-nitro- |
m-Nitroaniline | 99-09-2 | Benzenamine, 3-nitro- |
p-Nitroaniline | 100-01-6 | Benzenamine, 4-nitro- |
Nitrobenzene | 98-95-3 | Benzene, nitro- |
o-Nitrophenol | 88-75-5 | Phenol, 2-nitro- |
p-Nitrophenol | 100-02-7 | Phenol, 4-nitro- |
4-Nitroquinoline 1-oxide | 56-57-5 | Quinoline, 4-nitro, 1-oxide |
N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine | 924-16-3 | 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso- |
N-Nitrosodiethylamine | 55-18-5 | Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso- |
N-Nitrosodimethylamine | 62-75-9 | Methanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- |
N-Nitrosodiphenylamine | 86-30-6 | Benzenamine, N-nitroso-N-phenyl- |
N-Nitrosodipropylamine;Di-n-propylnitrosamine | 621-64-7 | 1-Propanamine, N-nitroso-N-propyl- |
N-Nitrosomethylethalamine | 10595-95-6 | Ethanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- |
N-Nitrosomorpholine | 59-89-2 | Morpholine, 4-nitroso- |
N-Nitrosopiperidine | 100-75-4 | Piperidine, 1-nitroso- |
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine | 930-55-2 | Pyrrolidine, 1-nitroso- |
5-Nitro-o-toluidine | 99-55-8 | Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro- |
Parathion | 56-38-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl-O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
Polychlorinated biphenyls; PCBs | See footnote 4 | l,l'-Biphenyl, chloro derivatives |
Polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins; PCDDs | See footnote 5 | Dibenzo[b,e][1,4]dioxin, chloro derivatives |
Polychlorinated dibenzofurans; PCDFs | See footnote 6 | Dibenzofuran, chloro derivatives |
Pentachlorobenzene | 608-93-5 | Benzene, pentachloro- |
Pentachloroethane | 76-01-7 | Ethane, pentachloro- |
Pentachloronitrobenzene | 82-68-8 | Benzene, pentachloronitro- |
Pentachlorophenol | 87-86-5 | Phenol, pentachloro- |
Phenacetin | 62-44-2 | Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl) |
Phenanthrene | 85-01-8 | Phenanthrene |
Phenol | 108-95-2 | Phenol |
p-Phenylenediamine | 106-50-3 | 1,4-Benzenediamine |
Phorate | 298-02-2 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[(ethylthio)methyl] ester |
2-Picoline | 109-06-8 | Pyridine, 2-methyl- |
Pronamide | 23950-58-5 | Benzamide, 3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl)- |
Propionitrile; Ethyl cyanide | 107-12-0 | Propanenitrile |
Pyrene | 129-00-0 | Pyrene |
Pyridine | 110-86-1 | Pyridine |
Safrole | 94-59-7 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(2-propenyl)- |
Selenium | (Total) | Selenium |
Silver | (Total) | Silver |
Silvex; 2,4,5-TP | 93-72-1 | Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5- trichlorophenoxy)- |
Styrene | 100-42-5 | Benzene, ethenyl- |
Sulfide | 18496-25-8 | Sulfide |
2,4,5-T; 2,4,5- Trichlorophenoxyacetic acid | 93-76-5 | Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- |
2,3,7,8-TCDD; 2,3,7,8-Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin | 1746-01-6 | Dibenzo[b,e][l,4]dioxin, 2,3,7,8-tetrachloro- |
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene | 95-94-3 | Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro- |
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane | 630-20-6 | Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro- |
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane | 79-34-5 | Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro- |
Tetrachloroethylene; Perchloroethylene; Tetrachloroethene | 127-18-4 | Ethene, tetrachloro- |
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol | 58-90-2 | Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro- |
Tetraethyl dithiopyrophosphate; Sulfotepp | 3689-24- 5 | Thiodiphosphoric acid ([(HO)2 P(S)]2 O), tetraethyl ester |
Thallium | (Total) | Thallium |
Tin | (Total) | Tin |
Toluene | 108-88-3 | Benzene, methyl- |
o-Toluidine | 95-53-4 | Benzenamine, 2-methyl- |
Toxaphene | 8001-35- 2 | Toxaphene |
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene | 120-82-1 | Benzene, 1,2,4-trichloro- |
1,1,1 -Trichloroethane; Methyl chl oroform | 71-55-6 | Ethane, 1,1,1 -tri chl oro- |
1,1,2-Trichloroethane | 79-00-5 | Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro- |
Trichloroethylene; Trichloroethene | 79-01-6 | Ethene, trichloro- |
Trichlorofluoromethane | 75-69-4 | Methane, trichlorofluoro- |
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol | 95-95-4 | Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro- |
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol | 88-06-2 | Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro- |
1,2,3-Trichloropropane | 96-18-4 | Propane, 1,2,3-trichloro- |
O,O,O-Triethyl phosphorothioate | 126-68-1 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O,O-triethyl ester |
sym-Trinitrobenzene | 99-35-4 | Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro- |
Vanadium | (Total) | Vanadium |
Vinyl acetate | 108-05-4 | Acetic acid, ethenyl ester |
Vinyl chloride | 75-01-4 | Ethene, chloro- |
Xylene (total) | 1330-20-7 | Benzene, dimethyl- |
Zinc | (Total) | Zinc |
FOOTNOTES:
(1) The regulatory requirements pertain only to the list of substances; the right hand columns (Methods and PQL) are given for informational purposes only. See also footnotes 5 and 6.
(2) Common names are those widely used in government regulations, scientific publications, and commerce; synonyms exist for many chemicals.
(3) Chemical Abstracts Service registry number. Where "Total" is entered, all species in the ground water that contain this element are included.
(4) CAS index names are those used in the 9th Cumulative Index.
(5) Suggested methods refer to analytical procedure numbers used in the EPA publication, SW-846, "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste", Third Edition. Analytical details can be found in SW-846 and in documentation on file at the Agency. The packed column gas chromatography methods 8010, 8020, 8030, 8040, 8060, 8080, 8090, 8110, 8120, 8140, 8150, 8240, and 8250 were promulgated methods through Update IIB of SW-846 and, as of Update III, the Agency has replaced these methods with "capillary column GC methods", as the suggested methods.
(6) Practical Quantitation Limits (PQLs) are the lowest concentrations of analytes in ground waters that can be reliably determined within specified limits of precision and accuracy by the indicated methods under routine laboratory operating conditions. The PQLs listed are generally stated to one significant figure. CAUTION: The PQL values in many cases are based only on a general estimate for the method and not on a determination for individual compounds; PQLs are not a part of the regulation.
(7) Polychlorinated biphenyls (CAS RN 1336-36-3); this category contains congener chemicals, including constituents of Aroclor-1016 (CAS RN 12674-11-2), Aroclor-1221 (CAS RN 11104-28-2), Aroclor-1232 (CAS RN 11141-16-5), Aroclor-1242 (CAS RN 53469-21-9), Aroclor-1248 (CAS RN 12672-29-6), Aroclor-1254 (CAS RN 11097-69-1), and Aroclor-1260 (CAS RN 11096-82-5). The PQL shown is an average value for PCB congeners.
(8) This category contains congener chemicals, including tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins (see also 2,3,7,8-TCDD), pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins, and hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins. The PQL shown is an average value for PCDD congeners.
(9) This category contains congener chemicals, including tetrachlorodibenzofurans, pentachlorodibenzofurans, and hexachlorodibenzofurans. The PQL shown is an average value for PCDF congeners.
[Comment: As stated in section 3005(a) of RCRA, after the effective date of s under that section (i.e., 270 and 124 of this rule), the treatment, storage and disposal of hazardous waste is prohibited except in accordance with a permit. Section 3005(e) of RCRA provides for the continued operation of an existing facility that meets certain conditions, until final administrative disposition of the owner's and operator's permit application is made.]
[Comment: These Section 265 rules do apply to the treatment or storage of hazardous waste before it is loaded onto an ocean vessel for incineration or disposal at sea, as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.]
[Comment: The owner or operator of a facility under paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section is subject to the requirements of Section 264 this rule to the extent they are included in a permit by rule granted to such a person under 40 CFR part 122, or are required by 40 CFR 144.14.]
Notwithstanding any other provisions of these rules, enforcement actions may be brought pursuant to section 7003 of RCRA or the Arkansas Remedial Action Trust Fund Act (RATFA) (A.C.A. §§ 8-7-501et seq.).
The rules in this Subsection apply to owners and operators of all hazardous waste facilities, except as § 265.1 provides otherwise.
Every facility owner or operator must apply to the Department for an EPA identification number.
[Comment: An owner's or operator's failure to notify the new owner or operator of the requirements of this Section in no way relieves the new owner or operator of his obligation to comply with all applicable requirements.]
[Comment: For example, the facility's records of analyses performed on the waste before the effective date of these rules, or studies conducted on hazardous waste generated from processes similar to that which generated the waste to be managed at the facility, may be included in the data base required to comply with paragraph (a)(1) of this section. The owner or operator of an off-site facility may arrange for the generator of the hazardous waste to supply part of the information required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section, except as otherwise specified in § 268.7 (b) and (c). If the generator does not supply the information, and the owner or operator chooses to accept a hazardous waste, the owner or operator is responsible for obtaining the information required to comply with this section.]
[Comment: See § 260.20(c) of this rule for related discussion.]
[Comment: The requirements of paragraph (b) of this section are satisfied if the facility or plant within which the active portion is located itself has a surveillance system, or a barrier and a means to control entry, which complies with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section.]
[Comment: See § 265.117(b) for discussion of security requirements at disposal facilities during the post-closure care period.]
The placement of any hazardous waste in a salt dome, salt bed formation, underground mine or cave is prohibited.
The rule in this Subsection apply to owners and operators of all hazardous waste facilities, except as § 265.1 provides otherwise.
Facilities must be maintained and operated to minimize the possibility of a fire, explosion, or any unplanned sudden or non-sudden release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents to air, soil, or surface water which could threaten human health or the environment.
All facilities must be equipped with the following, unless none of the hazards posed by waste handled at the facility could require a particular kind of equipment specified below:
All facility communications or alarm systems, fire protection equipment, spill control equipment, and decontamination equipment, where required, must be tested and maintained as necessary to assure its proper operation in time of emergency.
The owner or operator must maintain aisle space to allow the unobstructed movement of personnel, fire protection equipment, spill control equipment, and decontamination equipment to any area of facility operation in an emergency, unless aisle space is not needed for any of these purposes.
The rules in this Subsection apply to owners and operators of all hazardous waste facilities, except as § 265.1 provides otherwise.
A copy of the contingency plan and all revisions to the plan must be:
The contingency plan must be reviewed, and immediately amended, if necessary, whenever:
At all times, there must be at least one employee either on the facility premises or on call (i.e., available to respond to an emergency by reaching the facility within a short period of time) with the responsibility for coordinating all emergency response measures. This emergency coordinator must be thoroughly familiar with all aspects of the facility's contingency plan, all operations and activities at the facility, the location and characteristics of waste handled, the location of all records within the facility, and the facility layout. In addition, this person must have the authority to commit the resources needed to carry out the contingency plan.
[Comment: The emergency coordinator's responsibilities are more fully spelled out in § 265.56. Applicable responsibilities for the emergency coordinator vary, depending on factors such as type and variety of waste(s) handled by the facility, and type and complexity of the facility.]
[Comment: Unless the owner or operator can demonstrate, in accordance with § 261.3(c) or (d) of this rule, that the recovered material is not a hazardous waste, the owner or operator becomes a generator of hazardous waste and must manage it in accordance with all applicable requirements of Sections 262, 263, and 265 of this rule.]
[Comment: The Department does not intend that the owner or operator of a facility whose procedures under § 265.13(c) include waste analysis must perform that analysis before signing the shipping paper and giving it to the transporter. Section 265.72(b), however, requires reporting an unreconciled discrepancy discovered during later analysis.]
[Comment: Section 262.23(c) of this rule requires the generator to send three copies of the manifest to the facility when hazardous waste is sent by rail or water (bulk shipment).]
[Comment: See §§ 265.119, 265.279, and 265.309 for related requirements.]
[Comment: As required by § 265.94, monitoring data at disposal facilities must be kept throughout the post-closure period.]
The owner or operator of a treatment, storage or disposal facility must prepare and submit a single copy of an Annual Report to the Director not later than March 1, of each year. The Annual Report must be submitted on forms or in an electronic format furnished or approved by the Division and in accordance with the annual instruction booklet provided by the Division. The report must cover facility activities during the previous calendar year and must include, at a minimum, the following information:
[Comment: Where a facility receives unmanifested hazardous wastes, the Division suggests that the owner or operator obtain from each generator a certification that the waste qualifies for exclusion. Otherwise, the Division suggests that the owner or operator file an unmanifested waste report for the hazardous waste movement.]
In addition to submitting the annual report and unmanifested waste reports described in §§ 265.75 and 265.76, the owner or operator must also report to the Director:
[Comment: See "Procedures Manual For Ground-water Monitoring At Solid Waste Disposal Facilities," EPA-530/SW-611, August 1977 and "Methods for Chemical Analysis of Water and Wastes," EPA-600/4-79-020, March 1979 for discussions of sampling and analysis procedures.]
[Comment: These parameters are to be used as a basis for comparison in the event a ground-water quality assessment is required under § 265.93(d).]
Except as § 265.1 provides otherwise:
The owner or operator must close the facility in a manner that:
During the partial and final closure periods, all contaminated equipment, structures and soil must be properly disposed of, or decontaminated unless specified otherwise in §§ 265.197, 265.228, 265.258, 265.280, or 265.310. By removing all hazardous wastes or hazardous constituents during partial and final closure, the owner or operator may become a generator of hazardous waste and must handle that hazardous waste in accordance with all applicable requirements of Section 261 of this rule.
Within 60 days of completion of closure of each hazardous waste surface impoundment, waste pile, land treatment, and landfill unit, and within 60 days of completion of final closure, the owner or operator must submit to the Director, by registered mail, a certification that the hazardous waste management unit or facility, as applicable, has been closed in accordance with the specifications in the approved closure plan. The certification must be signed by the owner or operator and by an independent qualified Arkansas-registered professional engineer. Documentation supporting the independent Arkansas-registered professional engineer's certification must be furnished to the Director upon request until he releases the owner or operator from the financial assurance requirements for closure under § 265.143(h).
No later than the submission of the certification of closure of each hazardous waste disposal unit, an owner or operator must submit to the local zoning authority, or the authority with jurisdiction over local land use, and to the Director, a survey plat indicating the location and dimensions of landfill cells or other hazardous waste disposal units with respect to permanently surveyed benchmarks. This plat must be prepared and certified by a professional land surveyor. The plat filed with the local zoning authority, or the authority with jurisdiction over local land use must contain a note, prominently displayed, which states the owner's or operator's obligation to restrict disturbance of the hazardous waste disposal unit in accordance with the applicable Subsection G rules.
No later than 60 days after the completion of the established post-closure care period for each hazardous waste disposal unit, the owner or operator must submit to the Director, by registered mail, a certification that the post-closure care period for the hazardous waste disposal unit was performed in accordance with the specifications in the approved post-closure plan. The certification must be signed by the owner or operator and an independent qualified Arkansas-registered professional engineer. Documentation supporting the independent Arkansas-registered professional engineer's certification must be furnished to the Director upon request until he releases the owner or operator from the financial assurance requirements for post-closure care under § 265.145(h).
"Assets" means all existing and all probable future economic benefits obtained or controlled by a particular entity.
"Captive insurance" means insurance for which the insurer underwrites insurance policies solely for its parent corporation or for other affiliates controlled by its parent.
"Completed fiscal year" shall mean a period based upon generally accepted accounting practices.
"Current assets" means cash or other assets or resources commonly identified as those which are reasonably expected to be realized in cash or sold or consumed during the normal operating cycle of the business.
"Current liabilities" means obligations whose liquidation is reasonably expected to require the use of existing resources properly classifiable as current assets or the creation of other current liabilities.
"Current plugging and abandonment cost estimate" means the most recent of the estimates prepared in accordance with 40 CFR Part 144.62(a), (b), and (c) of this title.
"Independently audited' refers to an audit performed by an independent certified public accountant in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards.
"Liabilities" means probable future sacrifices of economic benefits arising from present obligations to transfer assets or provide services to other entities in the future as a result of past transactions or events.
"Net working capital" means current assets minus current liabilities.
"Net worth" means total assets minus total liabilities and is equivalent to owner's equity.
"Tangible net worth" means the tangible assets that remain after deducting liabilities; such assets would not include intangibles such as goodwill and rights to patents or royalties.
"Accidental occurrence" means an accident, including continuous or repeated exposure to conditions, which results in bodily injury or property damage neither expected nor intended from the standpoint of the insured.
"Legal defense costs" means any expenses that an insurer incurs in defending against claims of third parties brought under the terms and conditions of an insurance policy.
"Nonsudden accidental occurrence" means an occurrence which takes place over time and involves continuous or repeated exposure.
"Sudden accidental occurrence" means an occurrence which is not continuous or repeated in nature.
By the effective date of these rules, an owner or operator of each facility must establish financial assurance for closure of the facility. He must choose from the options as specified in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section.
where CE is the current closure cost estimate, CV is the current value of the trust fund, and Y is the number of years remaining in the pay-in period.
By the effective date of these rules, an owner or operator of a facility with a hazardous waste disposal unit must establish financial assurance for post-closure care of the disposal unit(s).
where CE is the current post-closure cost estimate, CV is the current value of the trust fund, and Y is the number of years remaining in the pay-in period.
An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements for financial assurance for both closure and post-closure care for one or more facilities by using a trust fund, surety bond, letter of credit, insurance, financial test, or corporate guarantee that meets the specifications for the mechanism in both §§ 265.143 and 265.145. The amount of funds available through the mechanism must be no less than the sum of funds that would be available if a separate mechanism had been established and maintained for financial assurance of closure and of post-closure care.
The rules in this Subsection apply to owners and operators of all hazardous waste facilities that store containers of hazardous waste, except as § 265.1 provides otherwise.
If a container holding hazardous waste is not in good condition, or if it begins to leak, the owner or operator must transfer the hazardous waste from this container to a container that is in good condition, or manage the waste in some other way that complies with the requirements of this Section.
The owner or operator must use a container made of or lined with materials which will not react with, and are otherwise compatible with, the hazardous waste to be stored, so that the ability of the container to contain the waste is not impaired.
[Comment: Re-use of containers in transportation is governed by U.S. Department of Transportation regulations, including those set forth in 49 CFR 173.28.]
At least weekly, the owner or operator must inspect areas where containers are stored. The owner or operator must look for leaking containers and for deterioration of containers and the containment system caused by corrosion or other factors. See § 265.171 for remedial action required if deterioration or leaks are detected.
Containers holding ignitable or reactive waste must be located at least 15 meters (50 feet) from the facility's property line.
[Comment: See § 265.17(a) for additional requirements.]
[Comment: The purpose of this is to prevent fires, explosions, gaseous emissions, leaching, or other discharge of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents which could result from the mixing of incompatible wastes or materials if containers break or leak.]
The owner or operator shall manage all hazardous waste placed in a container in accordance with the requirements of subsections AA, BB, and CC of this section.
The requirements of this Subsection apply to owners and operators of facilities that use tank systems for storing or treating hazardous waste except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section or in § 265.1 of this Section.
[Note: The practices described in the American Petroleum Institute (API) Publication, Guide for Inspection of Refinery Equipment, Regulation XIII, "Atmospheric and Low-Pressure Storage Tanks," 4th edition, 1981, may be used, where applicable, as guidelines in conducting the integrity examination of an other than non-enterable underground tank system.]
Note: The practices described in the National Association of Corrosion Engineers (NACE) standard, "Recommended Practice (RP-02-85) - Control of External Corrosion on Metallic Buried, Partially Buried, or Submerged Liquid Storage Systems," and the American Petroleum Institute (API) Publication 1632, "Cathodic Protection of Underground Petroleum Storage Tanks and Piping Systems," may be used, where applicable, as guidelines in providing corrosion protection for tank systems.
All discrepancies must be remedied before the tank system is covered, enclosed, or placed in use.
Note: The piping system installation procedures described in American Petroleum Institute (API) Publication 1615 (November 1979), "Installation of Underground Petroleum Storage Systems," or ANSI Standard B31.3, "Petroleum Refinery System," may be used, where applicable, as guidelines for proper installation of piping systems.
Note: If the collected material is a hazardous waste under Section 261 of this rule, it is subject to management as a hazardous waste in accordance with all applicable requirements of Sections 262 through 265of this rule. If the collected material is discharged through a point source to waters of the State, it is subject to the requirements of sections 301, 304, and 402 of the Clean Water Act, as amended. If discharged to Publicly Owned Treatment Works (POTWs), it is subject to the requirements of section 307 of the Clear Water Act, as amended. If the collected material is released to the environment, it may be subject to the reporting requirements of 40 CFR part 302.
Note: The provisions outlined in the Steel Tank Institute's (STI) "Standard for Dual Wall Underground Steel Storage Tank" may be used as guidelines for aspects of the design of underground steel double-walled tanks.
Note: The practices described in the American Petroleum Institute (API) Publication Guide for Inspection of Refining Equipment, Chapter XIII, "Atmospheric and Low Pressure Storage Tanks," 4th edition, 1981, may be used, when applicable, as guidelines for assessing the overall condition of the tank system.
Note: Section 265.15(c) requires the owner or operator to remedy any deterioration or malfunction he finds. Section 265.196 requires the owner or operator to notify the Director within 24 hours of confirming a release. Also, 40 CFR part 302 may require the owner or operator to notify the National Response Center of a release.
Note: The practices described in the National Association of Corrosion Engineers (NACE) standard, "Recommended Practice (RP-02-85) - Control of External Corrosion on Metallic Buried, Partially Buried, or Submerged Liquid Storage Systems," and the American Petroleum Institute (API) Publication 1632, "Cathodic Protection of Underground Petroleum Storage Tanks and Piping Systems," may be used, where applicable, as guidelines in maintaining and inspecting cathodic protection systems.
A tank system or secondary containment system from which there has been a leak or spill, or which is unfit for use, must be removed from service immediately, and the owner or operator must satisfy the following requirements:
Note: The Director may, on the basis of any information received that there is or has been a release of hazardous waste, hazardous constituents, and/or hazardous substances into the environment, issue an order under the Arkansas Remedial ActionTrust Fund Act (A.C.A. §§ 8-7-501, et seq.) requiring corrective action or such other response as deemed necessary to protect human health or the environment.
Note: See § 265.15(c) for the requirements necessary to remedy a failure. Also, 40 CFR part 302 requires the owner or operator to notify the National Response Center of a release of any "reportable quantity."
In addition to performing the waste analysis required by § 265.13, the owner or operator must, whenever a tank system is to be used to treat chemically or to store a hazardous waste that is substantially different from waste previously treated or stored in that tank system; or treat chemically a hazardous waste with a substantially different process than any previously used in that tank system:
Note: Section 265.13 requires the waste analysis plan to include analyses needed to comply with §§ 265.198 and 265.199. Section 265.73 requires the owner or operator to place the results from each waste analysis and trial test, or the documented information, in the operating record of the facility.
The owner or operator shall manage all hazardous waste placed in a tank in accordance with the requirements of subsections AA, BB, and CC of this section.
Subsection K - Surface Impoundments
The rules in this Subsection apply to owners and operators of facilities that use surface impoundments to treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste, except as § 265.1 provides otherwise.
All earthen dikes must have a protective cover, such as grass, shale, or rock, to minimize wind and water erosion and to preserve their structural integrity.
[Comment: As required by § 265.13, the waste analysis plan must include analyses needed to comply with §§ 265.229 and 265.230. As required by § 265.73, the owner or operator must place the results from each waste analysis and trial test, or the documented information, in the operating record of the facility.]
[Comment: As required by § 265.15(c), the owner or operator must remedy any deterioration or malfunction he finds.]
Ignitable or reactive waste must not be placed in a surface impoundment, unless the waste and impoundment satisfy all applicable requirements of Section 268 and 40 CFR part 268, and:
Incompatible wastes, or incompatible wastes and materials, (see Appendix V for examples) must not be placed in the same surface impoundment, unless § 265.17(b) is complied with.
The owner or operator shall manage all hazardous waste placed in a surface impoundment in accordance with the requirements of subsections BB and CC of this section.
The rules in this Subsection apply to owners and operators of facilities that treat or store hazardous waste in piles, except as § 265.1 provides otherwise. Alternatively, a pile of hazardous waste may be managed as a landfill under Subsection N.
The owner or operator of a pile containing hazardous waste which could be subject to dispersal by wind must cover or otherwise manage the pile so that wind dispersal is controlled.
In addition to the waste analyses required by § 265.13, the owner or operator must analyze a representative sample of waste from each incoming movement before adding the waste to any existing pile, unless (1) The only wastes the facility receives which are amenable to piling are compatible with each other, or (2) the waste received is compatible with the waste in the pile to which it is to be added. The analysis conducted must be capable of differentiating between the types of hazardous waste the owner or operator places in piles, so that mixing of incompatible waste does not inadvertently occur. The analysis must include a visual comparison of color and texture.
[Comment: As required by § 265.13, the waste analysis plan must include analyses needed to comply with §§ 265.256 and 265.257. As required by § 265.73, the owner or operator must place the results of this analysis in the operating record of the facility.]
If leachate or run-off from a pile is a hazardous waste, then either:
[Comment: If collected leachate or run-off is discharged through a point source to waters of the State, it is subject to the requirements of section 402 of the Clean Water Act, as amended.]
The owner or operator of each new waste pile on which construction commences after January 29, 1992, each lateral expansion of a waste pile unit on which construction commences after July 29, 1992, and each such replacement of an existing waste pile unit that is to commence reuse after July 29, 1992 must install two or more liners and a leachate collection and removal system above and between such liners, and operate the leachate collection and removal systems, in accordance with § 264.251(c), unless exempted under § 264.251(d), (e), or (f), of this rule; and must comply with the procedures of § 265.221(b). "Construction commences" is as defined in § 260.10 of this rule under "existing facility".
[Comment: The purpose of this is to prevent fires, explosions, gaseous emissions, leaching, or other discharge of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents which could result from the contact or mixing of incompatible wastes or materials.]
An owner or operator required to have a leak detection system under § 265.254 must record the amount of liquids removed from each leak detection system sump at least once each week during the active life and closure period.
The rules in this Subsection apply to owners and operators of hazardous waste land treatment facilities, except as § 265.1 provides otherwise.
In addition to the waste analyses required by § 265.13, before placing a hazardous waste in or on a land treatment facility, the owner or operator must:
[Comment: Section 261 of this rule specifies the substances for which a waste is listed as a hazardous waste. As required by § 265.13, the waste analysis plan must include analyses needed to comply with §§ 265.281 and 265.282. As required by § 265.73, the owner or operator must place the results from each waste analysis, or the documented information, in the operating record of the facility.]
[Comment: The growth of food chain crops at a facility which has never before been used for this purpose is a significant change in process under 40 CFR 122.72(c) . Owners or operators of such land treatment facilities who propose to grow food chain crops after the effective date of this Section must comply with 40 CFR 122.72(c).]
Time period Annual Cd application rate (kg/ha) | |
Present to June 30, 1984 | 2.0 |
July 1, 1984 to December 31, 1986 | 1.25 |
Beginning January 1, 1987 | 0.5 |
Maximum cumulative application (kg/ha)
Soil caption exchange capacity | Background soil pH < 6.5 | Background soil pH > 6.5 |
Less than 5 | 5 | 5 |
5 to 15 | 5 | 10 |
Greater than 15 | 5 | 20 |
Soil caption exchange capacity (meq/100g) (kg/ha) | Maximum cumulative application |
Less than 5 | 5 |
5 to 15 | 10 |
Greater than 15 | 20 |
[Comment: As required by § 265.73, if an owner or operator grows food chain crops on his land treatment facility, he must place the information developed in this section in the operating record of the facility.]
[Comment: As required by § 265.73, all data and information developed by the owner or operator under this section must be placed in the operating record of the facility.]
The owner or operator must include hazardous waste application dates and rates in the operating record required under § 265.73.
The owner or operator must not apply ignitable or reactive waste to the treatment zone unless the waste and treatment zone meet all applicable requirements of Section 268, and:
Incompatible wastes, or incompatible wastes and materials (see Appendix V for examples), must not be placed in the same land treatment area, unless § 265.17(b) is complied with.
The rules in this Subsection apply to owners and operators of facilities that dispose of hazardous waste in landfills, except as § 265.1 provides otherwise. A waste pile used as a disposal facility is a landfill and is governed by this Subsection.
[Comment: As required by § 265.13, the waste analysis plan must include analyses needed to comply with §§ 265.312, 265.313, and 265.314. As required by § 265.73, the owner or operator must place the results of these analyses in the operating record of the facility.]
The owner or operator of a landfill must maintain the following items in the operating record required in § 265.73:
Incompatible wastes, or incompatible wastes and materials, (see Appendix V for examples) must not be placed in the same landfill cell, unless § 265.17(b) is complied with.
Unless they are very small, such as an ampule, containers must be either:
Small containers of hazardous waste in overpacked drums (lab packs) may be placed in a landfill if the following requirements are met:
In addition to the waste analyses required by § 265.13, the owner or operator must sufficiently analyze any waste which he has not previously burned in his incinerator to enable him to establish steady state (normal) operating conditions (including waste and auxiliary fuel feed and air flow) and to determine the type of pollutants which might be emitted. At a minimum, the analysis must determine:
[Comment: As required by § 265.73, the owner or operator must place the results from each waste analysis, or the documented information, in the operating record of the facility.]
During start-up and shut-down of an incinerator, the owner or operator must not feed hazardous waste unless the incinerator is at steady state (normal) conditions of operation, including steady state operating temperature and air flow.
The owner or operator must conduct, as a minimum, the following monitoring and inspections when incinerating hazardous waste:
At closure, the owner or operator must remove all hazardous waste and hazardous waste residues (including but not limited to ash, scrubber waters, and scrubber sludges) from the incinerator.[
[Comment: At closure, as throughout the operating period, unless the owner or operator can demonstrate, in accordance with § 261.3(d) of this rule, that the residue removed from his incinerator is not a hazardous waste, the owner or operator becomes a generator of hazardous waste and must manage it in accordance with all applicable requirements of parts 262 through 266 of this rule.]
The rule in this Subsection apply to owners and operators of facilities which treat hazardous wastes by chemical, physical, or biological methods in other than tanks, surface impoundments, and land treatment facilities, except as § 265.1 provides otherwise. Chemical, physical, and biological treatment of hazardous waste in tanks, surface impoundments, and land treatment facilities must be conducted in accordance with Subsections J, K, and M, respectively.
[Comment: These systems are intended to be used in the event of a malfunction in the treatment process or equipment.]
[Comment: As required by § 265.13, the waste analysis plan must include analyses needed to comply with §§ 265.405 and 265.406. As required by § 265.73, the owner or operator must place the results from each waste analysis and trial test, or the documented information, in the operating record of the facility.]
[Comment: As required by § 265.15(c), the owner or operator must remedy any deterioration or malfunction he finds.]
At closure, all hazardous waste and hazardous waste residues must be removed from treatment processes or equipment, discharge control equipment, and discharge confinement structures.
[Comment: At closure, as throughout the operating period, unless the owner or operator can demonstrate, in accordance with § 261.3 (c) or (d) of this rule, that any solid waste removed from his treatment process or equipment is not a hazardous waste, the owner or operator becomes a generator of hazardous waste and must manage it in accordance with all applicable requirements of Sections 262, 263, and 265 of this rule.]
The rule in this Subsection apply to owners or operators of facilities that thermally treat hazardous waste in devices other than enclosed devices using controlled flame combustion, except as § 265.1 provides otherwise. Thermal treatment in enclosed devices using controlled flame combustion is subject to the requirements of Subsection O if the unit is an incinerator, and Subsection H of Section 266, if the unit is a boiler or an industrial furnace as defined in § 260.10.
Before adding hazardous waste, the owner or operator must bring his thermal treatment process to steady state (normal) conditions of operation - including steady state operating temperature - using auxiliary fuel or other means, unless the process is a non-continuous (batch) thermal treatment process which requires a complete thermal cycle to treat a discrete quantity of hazardous waste.
In addition to the waste analyses required by § 265.13, the owner or operator must sufficiently analyze any waste which he has not previously treated in his thermal process to enable him to establish steady state (normal) or other appropriate (for a non-continuous process) operating conditions (including waste and auxiliary fuel feed) and to determine the type of pollutants which might be emitted. At a minimum, the analysis must determine:
[Comment: As required by § 265.73, the owner or operator must place the results from each waste analysis, or the documented information, in the operating record of the facility.]
At closure, the owner or operator must remove all hazardous waste and hazardous waste residues (including, but not limited to, ash) from the thermal treatment process or equipment.
[Comment: At closure, as throughout the operating period, unless the owner or operator can demonstrate, in accordance with § 261.3(c) or (d) of this rule, that any solid waste removed from his thermal treatment process or equipment is not a hazardous waste, the owner or operator becomes a generator of hazardous waste and must manage it in accordance with all applicable requirements of parts 262, 263, and 265 of this rule.]
Open burning of hazardous waste is prohibited except for the open burning and detonation of waste explosives. Waste explosives include waste which has the potential to detonate and bulk military propellants which cannot safely be disposed of through other modes of treatment. Detonation is an explosion in which chemical transformation passes through the material faster than the speed of sound (0.33 kilometers/second at sea level). Owners or operators choosing to open burn or detonate waste explosives must do so in accordance with the following table and in a manner that does not threaten human health or the environment.
Pounds of waste explosives | Minimum distance from open burning or propellants or detonation to the property of others |
0 to 100 | 204 meters (670 feet). |
101 to 1,000 380 m | eters (1,250 feet). |
1,001 to 10,000 | 530 meters (1,730 feet). |
10,001 to 30,000 | 690 meters (2,260 feet). |
The open burning or the open detonation of hazardous wastes on unprotected ground surfaces is prohibited. Open burning or open detonation of wastes must be conducted in or on a containment device elevated above ground level. The containment device must be sufficiently impermeable so as to prevent the leaching or migration of waste residues into the soil beneath or around the containment device. The design shall be such that protection against stormwater or other run-on or run-off is provided. Open burning of hazardous wastes shall not be allowed when alternate technologies are available and feasible. Applicants for a permit for open burning or open detonation of hazardous wastes shall be required to demonstrate that no reasonable alternative to open burning or detonation exists prior to the approval of such a permit.
Except as § 265.1 provides otherwise:
[Comment: In addition to the requirements of Subsections A through E of this Section, the owner or operator of a facility which disposes of hazardous waste by underground injection ultimately must comply with the requirements of §§ 265.431 through 265.437. These sections are reserved at this time. EPA and Division will propose rules that would establish those requirements.]
Note: A properly installed and maintained drip pad coating which is installed to meet the September 30, 1995 deadline should satisfy the eventual coating option of § 265.443(a)(4).
Owners and operators of new drip pads must ensure that the pads are designed, installed, and operated in accordance with one of the following:
e.g., existing concrete drip pads must be sealed, coated, or covered with a surface material with a hydraulic conductivity of less than or equal to 1x10-7 centimeters per second such that the entire surface where drippage occurs or may run across is capable of containing all such drippage and mixtures of drippage and precipitation, materials, or other wastes while being routed to an associated collection system. This surface material must be maintained free of cracks and gaps that could adversely affect its hydraulic conductivity, and the material must be chemically compatible with the preservatives that contact the drip pad. The requirements of this provision apply to existing drip pads, and those drip pads for which the owner or operator elects to comply with § 265.442(b) instead of § 265.442(a). Penetrating sealants are not adequate to meet this coating or cover requirement.
Note: The requirement that existing drip pads be impermeable, e.g., that drip pads be sealed, coated, or covered with an impermeable material was in the past administratively stayed. The stay remained in effect until October 30, 1992. All existing drip pads, regardless of age, must have an impermeable coating or cover in place by September 30, 1995.
Note: The Division will generally consider applicable standards established by professional organizations generally recognized by industry such as the American Concrete Institute (ACI) and the American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM) in judging the structural integrity requirement of this paragraph.
Note: See § 265.443(m) for remedial action required if deterioration or leakage is detected.
Note: See § 265.443(m) for remedial action required if deterioration or leakage is detected.
[Note: The requirements of §§ 265.1032 through 265.1036 apply to process vents on hazardous waste recycling units previously exempt under paragraph 261.6(c)(1). Other exemptions under §§ 261.4 and 265.1(c) are not affected by these requirements.]
As used in this Subsection, all terms shall have the meaning given them in § 264.1031, RCRA, the Act, and Sections 260-266 of this rule.
where:
HT=Net heating value of the sample, MJ/scm; where the net enthalpy per mole of offgas is based on combustion at 25 °C and 760 mm Hg, but the standard temperature for determining the volume corresponding to 1 mol is 20 °C;
K=Constant, 1.74X10-7 (1/ppm) (g mol/scm) (MJ/kcal) where standard temperature for (g mol/scm) is 20 °C;
Ci=Concentration of sample component i in ppm on a wet basis, as measured for organics by Reference Method 18 in 40 CFR part 60 and measured for hydrogen and carbon monoxide by ASTM D 1946-82 (incorporated by reference as specified in § 260.11); and
Hi=Net heat of combustion of sample component i, kcal/g mol at 25 °C and 760 mm Hg. The heats of combustion may be determined using ASTM D 2382-83 (incorporated by reference as specified in § 260.11) if published values are not available or cannot be calculated.
where:
HT=The net heating value as determined in paragraph (e)(2) of this section. 28.8=Constant, 31.7=Constant.
where:
8.706 = Constant.
0.7084 = Constant.
HT = The net heating value as determined in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
where:
Eh=Total organic mass flow rate, kg/h;
Q2sd=Volumetric flow rate of gases entering or exiting control device, as determined by Method 2, dscm/h;
n=Number of organic compounds in the vent gas;
Ci=Organic concentration in ppm, dry basis, of compound i in the vent gas, as determined by Method 18;
MWi=Molecular weight of organic compound i in the vent gas, kg/kg-mol;
0.0416=Conversion factor for molar volume, kg-mol/m3 (@ 293 K and 760 mm Hg);
10-6=Conversion from ppm.
Where:
Eh = Total organic mass flow rate, kg/h;
Q = Volumetric flow rate of gases entering or exiting control device, as determined by Method 2, dscm/h;
C = Organic concentration in ppm, dry basis, as determined by Method 25A;
MW = Molecular weight of propane, 44;
0.0416 = Conversion factor for molar volume, kg-mol/m3 (@ 293 K and 760 mm Hg);
10-6 = Conversion from ppm.
where:
EA=Total organic mass emission rate, kg/y;
Eh=Total organic mass flow rate for the process vent, kg/h;
H=Total annual hours of operations for the affected unit, h.
[Note: The requirements of §§ 265.1052 through 265.1064 apply to equipment associated with hazardous waste recycling units previously exempt under paragraph 261.6(c)(1). Other exemptions under §§ 261.4 and 265.1(c) are not affected by these requirements.]
As used in this Subsection, all terms shall have the meaning given them in § 264.1031, the Act, and Sections 260-266.
As used in this subsection, all terms not defined herein shall have the meaning given to them in the Act and Sections 260 through 266 of this rule.
"Average volatile organic concentration" or "average VO concentration" means the mass-weighted average volatile organic concentration of a hazardous waste as determined in accordance with the requirements of § 265.1084 of this subsection.
"Closure device" means a cap, hatch, lid, plug, seal, valve, or other type of fitting that blocks an opening in a cover such that when the device is secured in the closed position it prevents or reduces air pollutant emissions to the atmosphere. Closure devices include devices that are detachable from the cover (e.g., a sampling port cap), manually operated (e.g., a hinged access lid or hatch), or automatically operated (e.g., a spring-loaded pressure relief valve).
"Continuous seal" means a seal that forms a continuous closure that completely covers the space between the edge of the floating roof and the wall of a tank. A continuous seal may be a vapor-mounted seal, liquid-mounted seal, or metallic shoe seal. A continuous seal may be constructed of fastened segments so as to form a continuous seal.
"Cover" means a device that provides a continuous barrier over the hazardous waste managed in a unit to prevent or reduce air pollutant emissions to the atmosphere. A cover may have openings (such as access hatches, sampling ports, gauge wells) that are necessary for operation, inspection, maintenance, and repair of the unit on which the cover is used. A cover may be a separate piece of equipment which can be detached and removed from the unit or a cover may be formed by structural features permanently integrated into the design of the unit.
"Enclosure" means a structure that surrounds a tank or container, captures organic vapors emitted from the tank or container, and vents the captured vapors through a closed-vent system to a control device.
"External floating roof" means a pontoon-type or double-deck type cover that rests on the surface of the material managed in a tank with no fixed roof.
"Fixed roof" means a cover that is mounted on a unit in a stationary position and does not move with fluctuations in the level of the material managed in the unit.
"Floating membrane cover" means a cover consisting of a synthetic flexible membrane material that rests upon and is supported by the hazardous waste being managed in a surface impoundment.
"Floating roof" means a cover consisting of a double deck, pontoon single deck, or internal floating cover which rests upon and is supported by the material being contained, and is equipped with a continuous seal.
"Hard-piping" means pipe or tubing that is manufactured and properly installed in accordance with relevant standards and good engineering practices.
"In light material service" means the container is used to manage a material for which both of the following conditions apply: The vapor pressure of one or more of the organic constituents in the material is greater than 0.3 kilopascals (kPa) at 20°C; and the total concentration of the pure organic constituents having a vapor pressure greater than 0.3 kPa at 20°C is equal to or greater than 20 percent by weight.
"Internal floating roof" means a cover that rests or floats on the material surface (but not necessarily in complete contact with it) inside a tank that has a fixed roof.
"Liquid-mounted seal" means a foam or liquid-filled primary seal mounted in contact with the hazardouswaste between the tank wall and the floating roof continuously around the circumference of the tank.
"Malfunction" means any sudden, infrequent, and not reasonably preventable failure of air pollution control equipment, process equipment, or a process to operate in a normal or usual manner. Failures that are caused in part by poor maintenance or careless operation are not malfunctions.
"Maximum organic vapor pressure" means the sum of the individual organic constituent partial pressures exerted by the material contained in a tank, at the maximum vapor pressure-causing conditions (i.e., temperature, agitation, pH effects of combining wastes, etc.) reasonably expected to occur in the tank. For the purpose of this subpart, maximum organic vapor pressure is determined using the procedures specified in § 265.1084(c) of this subsection.
"Metallic shoe seal" means a continuous seal that is constructed of metal sheets which are held vertically against the wall of the tank by springs, weighted levers, or other mechanisms and is connected to the floating roof by braces or other means. A flexible coated fabric (envelope) spans the annular space between the metal sheet and the floating roof.
"No detectable organic emissions" means no escape of organics to the atmosphere as determined using the procedure specified in § 265.1084(d) of this subsection.
"Point of waste origination" means as follows:
[Note: In this case, this term is being used in a manner similar to the use of the term "point of generation" in air standards established for waste management operations under authority of the Clean Air Act in 40 CFR Parts 60, 61, and 63].
"Point of waste treatment" means the point where a hazardous waste to be treated in accordance with § 265.1083(c)(2) of this subsection exits the treatment process. Any waste determination shall be made before the waste is conveyed, handled, or otherwise managed in a manner that allows the waste to volatilize to the atmosphere.
"Safety device" means a closure device such as a pressure relief valve, frangible disc, fusible plug, or any other type of device which functions exclusively to prevent physical damage or permanent deformation to a unit or its air emission control equipment by venting gases or vapors directly to the atmosphere during unsafe conditions resulting from an unplanned, accidental, or emergency event. For the purpose of this subsection, a safety device is not used for routine venting of gases or vapors from the vapor headspace underneath a cover such as during filling of the unit or to adjust the pressure in this vapor headspace in response to normal daily diurnal ambient temperature fluctuations. A safety device is designed to remain in a closed position during normal operations and open only when the internal pressure, or another relevant parameter, exceeds the device threshold setting applicable to the air emission control equipment as determined by the owner or operator based on manufacturer recommendations, applicable regulations, fire protection and prevention codes, standard engineering codes and practices, or other requirements for the safe handling of flammable, ignitable, explosive, reactive, or hazardous materials.
"Single-seal system" means a floating roof having one continuous seal. This seal may be vapor-mounted, liquid-mounted, or a metallic shoe seal.
"Vapor-mounted seal" means a continuous seal that is mounted such that there is a vapor space between the hazardous waste in the unit and the bottom of the seal.
"Volatile organic concentration" or "VO concentration" means the fraction by weight of the volatile organic compounds contained in a hazardous waste expressed in terms of parts per million (ppmw) as determined by direct measurement or by knowledge of the waste in accordance with the requirements of § 265.1084 of this subsection. For the purpose of determining the VO concentration of a hazardous waste, organic compounds with a Henry's law constant value of at least 0.1 mole-fraction-in-the-gas-phase/mole-fraction-in the liquid-phase (0.1 Y/X) [which can also be expressed as 1.8 x 10-6 atmospheres/gram-mole/m3 ] at 25 degrees Celsius must be included. Appendix VI of this subsection presents a list of compounds known to have a Henry's law constant value less than the cutoff level.
"Waste determination" means performing all applicable procedures in accordance with the requirements of § 265.1084 of this subsection to determine whether a hazardous waste meets standards specified in this subsection. Examples of a waste determination include performing the procedures in accordance with the requirements of § 265.1084 of this subsection to determine the average VO concentration of a hazardous waste at the point of waste origination; the average VO concentration of a hazardous waste at the point of waste treatment and comparing the results to the exit concentration limit specified for the process used to treat the hazardous waste; the organic reduction efficiency and the organic biodeg-radation efficiency for a biological process used to treat a hazardous waste and comparing the results to the applicable standards; or the maximum volatile organic vapor pressure for a hazardous waste in a tank and comparing the results to the applicable standards.
"Waste stabilization process" means any physical or chemical process used to either reduce the mobility of hazardous constituents in a hazardous waste or eliminate free liquids as determined by Test Method 9095B (Paint Filter Liquids Test) in "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," as incorporated by reference in § 260.11 of this rule. A waste stabilization process includes mixing the hazardous waste with binders or other materials, and curing the resulting hazardous waste and binder mixture. Other synonymous terms used to refer to this process are "waste fixation" or "waste solidification." This does not include the adding of absorbent materials to the surface of a waste, without mixing, agitation, or subsequent curing, to absorb free liquid.
The average VO concentration of the hazardous waste at the point of waste treatment and the exit concentration limit for the process shall be determined using the procedures specified in § 265.1084(b) of this subsection.
where:
C = Average VO concentration of the hazardous waste at the point of waste origination on a mass-weighted basis, ppmw.
i = Individual sample "i" of the hazardous waste.
n = Total number of samples of the hazardous waste collected (at least 4) for the averaging period (not to exceed 1 year).
Qi = Mass quantity of hazardous waste stream represented by Ci, kg/hr.
QT = Total mass quantity of hazardous waste during the averaging period, kg/hr.
Ci = Measured VO concentration of sample "i" as determined in accordance with the requirements of '265.1084(a)(3)(iii) of this subpart, ppmw.
[which can also be expressed as 1.8 x 10-6 atmospheres/gram-mole/m3] at 25°C.
where:
C=Average VO concentration of the hazardous waste at the point of waste treatment on a mass-weighted basis, ppmw.
i=Individual waste determination "i" of the hazardous waste.
n=Total number of waste determinations of the hazardous waste conducted for the averaging period (not to exceed 1 year).
Qi=Mass quantity of hazardous waste stream represented by C i, kg/hr.
QT=Total mass quantity of hazardous waste during the averaging period, kg/hr.
Ci=Measured VO concentration of waste determination "i" as determined in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section (i.e. the average of the four or more samples specified in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(B) of this section), ppmw.
where:
Ct = Exit concentration limit for treated hazardous waste, ppmw.
x = Individual hazardous waste stream "x" that has an average VO concentration less than 500 ppmw at the point of waste origination as determined in accordance with the requirements of § 265.1084(a) of this subsection.
y = Individual hazardous waste stream "y" that has an average VO concentration equal to or greater than 500 ppmw at the point of waste origination as determined in accordance with the requirements of §265.1084(a) of this subsection.
m = Total number of "x" hazardous waste streams treated by process.
n = Total number of "y" hazardous waste streams treated by process.
Qx = Annual mass quantity of hazardous waste stream "x," kg/yr.
Qy = Annual mass quantity of hazardous waste stream "y," kg/yr.
x = Average VO concentration of hazardous waste stream "x" at the point of waste origination as determined in accordance with the requirements of § 265.1084(a) of this subsection, ppmw.
where:
Ea = Waste volatile organic mass flow exiting process, kg/hr.
Eb = Waste volatile organic mass flow entering process, kg/hr.
m = Total number of runs (at least 3)
j = Individual run "j" Qb = Mass quantity of hazardous waste entering process during run "j," kg/hr.
Qa = Average mass quantity of hazardous waste exiting process during run "j," kg/hr.
a = Average VO concentration of hazardous waste exiting process during run "j" as determined in accordance with the requirements of '265.1084(b)(3) of this subsection, ppmw.
b = Average VO concentration of hazardous waste entering process during run "j" as determined in accordance with the requirements of § 265.1084(a)(3) of this subsection, ppmw.
where:
R = Organic reduction efficiency, percent.
Eb = Waste volatile organic mass flow entering process as determined in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(5)(iv) of this section, kg/hr.
Ea = Waste volatile organic mass flow exiting process as determined in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(5)(iv) of this section, kg/hr.
where:
Rbio = Organic biodegradation efficiency, percent.
Fbio = Fraction of organic biodegraded as determined in accordance with the requirements of bio paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section.
where:
RMR = Required organic mass removal rate, kg/hr.
y = Individual hazardous waste stream "y" that has an average VO concentration equal to or greater than 500 ppmw at the point of waste origination as determined in accordance with the requirements of § 265.1084(a) of this subsection.
n = Total number of "y" hazardous waste streams treated by process.
Vy = Average volumetric flow rate of hazardous waste stream "y" at the point of waste origination, m3/hr.
ky = Density of hazardous waste stream "y," kg/m3
y = Average VO concentration of hazardous waste stream "y" at the point of waste origination as determined in accordance with the requirements of § 265.1084(a) of this subsection, ppmw.
where:
MR = Actual organic mass removal rate, kg/hr.
Eb = Waste volatile organic mass flow entering process as determined in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(5)(iv) of this section, kg/hr.
Ea = Waste volatile organic mass flow exiting process as determined in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(5)(iv) of this section, kg/hr.
Where:
MRbio=Actual organic mass biodegradation rate, kg/hr.
Eb=Waste organic mass flow entering process as determined in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(5)(iv) of this section, kg/hr.
Fbio=Fraction of organic biodegraded as determined in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(9)(iii) of this section.
The requirements of this subsection apply to owners or operators who store or treat hazardous waste in units designed and operated under § 265.1101 of this subsection. The owner or operator is not subject to the definition of land disposal in RCRA section 3004(k) provided that the unit:
The requirements of this subsection apply to owners or operators who store munitions and explosive hazardous wastes, except as § 265.1 provides otherwise. (NOTE: Depending on explosive hazards, hazardous waste munitions and explosives may also be managed in other types of storage units, including containment buildings (Section 265, subsection DD), tanks (Section 265, subsection J), or containers (Section 265, subsection I); See § 266.205 for storage of waste military munitions).
Appendices to Section 265
Appendix I -- Recordkeeping Instructions
The recordkeeping provisions of § 265.73 specify that an owner or operator must keep a written operating record at his facility. This appendix provides additional instructions for keeping portions of the operating record. See § 265.73(b) for additional recordkeeping requirements.
The following information must be recorded, as it becomes available, and maintained in the operating record until closure of the facility in the following manner:
Records of each hazardous waste received, treated, stored, or disposed of at the facility which include the following:
Each hazardous waste listed in part 261, rule D, of this rule, and each hazardous waste characteristic defined in part 261, subsection C, of this rule, has a four-digit EPA Hazardous Waste Number assigned to it. This number must be used for recordkeeping and reporting purposes. Where a hazardous waste contains more than one listed hazardous waste, or where more than one hazardous waste characteristic applies to the waste, the waste description must include all applicable EPA Hazardous Waste Numbers.
Table 1
Unit of measure | Code1 |
Gallons | G |
Gallons per Hour | E |
Gallons per Day | U |
Liters | L |
Liters Per Hour | H |
Liters Per Day | V |
Short Tons Per Hour | D |
Metric Tons Per Hour | W |
Short Tons Per Day | N |
Metric Tons Per Day | S |
Pounds Per Hour | J |
Kilograms Per Hour | R |
Cubic Yards | Y |
Cubic Meters | C |
Acres | B |
Acre-feet | A |
Hectares | Q |
Hectare-meter | F |
Btu's per Hour | I |
Pounds | P |
Short tons | T |
Kilograms | K |
Tons | M |
FOOTNOTE: 1Single digit symbols are used here for data processing purposes.
Table 2.
Handling Codes for Treatment, Storage and Disposal Methods
Enter the handling code(s) listed below that most closely represents the technique(s) used at the facility to treat, store or dispose of each quantity of hazardous waste received.
S01 | Container (barrel, drum, etc.) |
S02 | Tank |
S03 | Waste Pile |
S04 | Surface Impoundment |
S05 | Drip Pad |
S06 | Containment Building (Storage) |
S99 | Other Storage (specify) |
T06 | Liquid injection incinerator |
T07 | Rotary kiln incinerator |
T08 | Fluidized bed incinerator |
T09 | Multiple hearth incinerator |
T10 | Infrared furnace incinerator |
T11 | Molten salt destructor |
T12 | Pyrolysis |
T13 | Wet Air oxidation |
T14 | Calcination |
T15 | Microwave discharge |
T18 | Other (specify) |
T19 | Absorption mound |
T20 | Absorption field |
T21 | Chemical fixation |
T22 | Chemical oxidation |
T23 | Chemical precipitation |
T24 | Chemical reduction |
T25 | Chlorination |
T26 | Chlorinolysis |
T27 | Cyanide destruction |
T28 | Degradation |
T29 | Detoxification |
T30 | Ion exchange |
T31 | Neutralization |
T32 | Ozonation |
T33 | Photolysis |
T34 | Other (specify) |
T35 | Centrifugation |
T36 | Clarification |
T37 | Coagulation |
T38 | Decanting |
T39 | Encapsulation |
T40 | Filtration |
T41 | Flocculation |
T42 | Flotation |
T43 | Foaming |
T44 | Sedimentation |
T45 | Thickening |
T46 | Ultrafiltration |
T47 | Other (specify) |
T48 | Absorption-molecular sieve |
T49 | Activated carbon |
T50 | Blending |
T51 | Catalysis |
T52 | Crystallization |
T53 | Dialysis |
T54 | Distillation |
T55 | Electrodialysis |
T56 | Electrolysis |
T57 | Evaporation |
T58 | High gradient magnetic separation |
T59 | Leaching |
T60 | Liquid ion exchange |
T61 | Liquid-liquid extraction |
T62 | Reverse osmosis |
T63 | Solvent recovery |
T64 | Stripping |
T65 | Sand filter |
T66 | Other (specify) |
T67 | Activated sludge |
T68 | Aerobic lagoon |
T69 | Aerobic tank |
T70 | Anaerobic tank |
T71 | Composting |
T72 | Septic tank |
T73 | Spray irrigation |
T74 | Thickening filter |
T75 | Trickling filter |
T76 | Waste stabilization pond |
T77 | Other (specify) |
T78 | [Reserved] |
T79 | [Reserved] |
T80 | Boiler |
T81 | Cement Kiln |
T82 | Lime Kiln |
T83 | Aggregate Kiln |
T84 | Phosphate Kiln |
T85 | Coke Oven |
T86 | Blast Furnace |
T87 | Smelting, Melting, or Refining Furnace |
T88 | Titanium Dioxide Chloride Process Oxidation Reactor |
T89 | Methane Reforming Furnace |
T90 | Pulping Liquor Recovery Furnace |
T91 Acid | Combustion Device Used in the Recovery of Sulfur Values From Spent Sulfuric |
T92 | Halogen Acid Furnaces |
T93 | Other Industrial Furnaces Listed in 40 CFR 260.10 (specify) |
T94 | Containment Building (Treatment) |
D79 | Underground Injection |
D80 | Landfill |
D81 | Land Treatment |
D82 | Ocean Disposal |
D83 | Surface Impoundment (to be closed as a landfill) |
D99 | Other Disposal (specify) |
X01 | Open Burning/Open Detonation |
X02 | Mechanical Processing |
X03 | Thermal Unit |
X04 | Geologic Repository |
X99 | Other (specify) |
Appendix II -- [Reserved]
Appendix III -- EPA Interim Primary Drinking Water Standards
Parameter | Maximum level (mg/l) |
Arsenic | 0.05 |
Barium | 1.0 |
Cadmium | 0.01 |
Chromium | 0.05 |
Fluoride | 1.4-2.4 |
Lead | 0.05 |
Mercury | 0.002 |
Nitrate (as N) | 10 |
Selenium | 0.01 |
Silver | 0.05 |
Endrin | 0.0002 |
Lindane | 0.004 |
Methoxychlor | 0.1 |
Toxaphene | 0.005 |
2,4-D | 0.1 |
2,4,5-TP Silver | 0.01 |
Radium | 5 pCi/1 |
Gross Alpha | 15 pCi/1 |
Gross Beta | 4 millirem/yr |
Turbidity | 1/TU |
Coliform Bacteria | 1/100 ml |
Comment: Turbidity is applicable only to surface water supplies.
Appendix IV -- Tests for Significance
As required in § 265.93(b) the owner or operator must use the Student's t-test to determine statistically significant changes in the concentration or value of an indicator parameter in periodic ground-water samples when compared to the initial background concentration or value of that indicator parameter. The comparison must consider individually each of the wells in the monitoring system. For three of the indicator parameters (specific conductance, total organic carbon, and total organic halogen) a single-tailed Student's t-test must be used to test at the 0.01 level of significance for significant increases over background. The difference test for pH must be a two-tailed Student's t-test at the overall 0.01 level of significance.
The Student's t-test involves calculation of the value of a t-statistic for each comparison of the mean (average) concentration or value (based on a minimum of four replicate measurements) of an indicator parameter with its initial background concentration or value. The calculated value of the t-statistic must then be compared to the value of the t-statistic found in a table for t-test of significance at the specified level of significance. A calculated value of t which exceeds the value of t found in the table indicates a statistically significant change in the concentration or value of the indicator parameter.
Formulae for calculation of the t-statistic and tables for t-test of significance can be found in most introductory statistics texts.
Appendix V -- Examples of Potentially Incompatible Waste
Many hazardous wastes, when mixed with other waste or materials at a hazardous waste facility, can produce effects which are harmful to human health and the environment, such as (1) heat or pressure, (2) fire or explosion, (3) violent reaction, (4) toxic dusts, mists, fumes, or gases, or (5) flammable fumes or gases.
Below are examples of potentially incompatible wastes, waste components, and materials, along with the harmful consequences which result from mixing materials in one group with materials in another group. The list is intended as a guide to owners or operators of treatment, storage, and disposal facilities, and to enforcement and permit granting officials, to indicate the need for special precautions when managing these potentially incompatible waste materials or components.
This list is not intended to be exhaustive. An owner or operator must, as the rule require, adequately analyze his wastes so that he can avoid creating uncontrolled substances or reactions of the type listed below, whether they are listed below or not.
It is possible for potentially incompatible wastes to be mixed in a way that precludes a reaction (e.g., adding acid to water rather than water to acid) or that neutralizes them (e.g., a strong acid mixed with a strong base), or that controls substances produced (e.g., by generating flammable gases in a closed tank equipped so that ignition cannot occur, and burning the gases in an incinerator).
In the lists below, the mixing of a Group A material with a Group B material may have the potential consequence as noted.
Group 1-A | Group 1-B |
Acetylene sludge | Acid sludge |
Alkaline caustic liquids | Acid and water |
Alkaline cleaner | Battery acid |
Alkaline corrosive liquids | Chemical cleaners |
Alkaline corrosive battery fluid | Electrolyte, acid |
Caustic wastewater | Etching acid liquid or solvent |
Lime sludge and other corrosive alkalies | |
Lime wastewater | Pickling liquor and other corrosive acids |
Lime and water | Spent acid |
Spent caustic | Spent mixed acid |
Spent sulfuric acid |
Potential consequences: Heat generation; violent reaction.
Group 2-A | Group 2-B |
Aluminum | Any waste in Group 1-A or 1-B |
Beryllium | |
Calcium | |
Lithium | |
Magnesium | |
Potassium | |
Sodium | |
Zinc powder | |
Other reactive metals and metal hydrides |
Potential consequences: Fire or explosion; generation of flammable hydrogen gas.
Group 3-A | Group 3-B |
Alcohols | Any concentrated waste in Groups 1-A or 1-B |
Water | Calcium |
Lithium | |
Metal hydrides | |
Potassium | |
SO2Cl2, SOCl2, PCl3, CH3SiCl3 | |
Other water-reactive waste |
Potential consequences: Fire, explosion, or heat generation; generation of flammable or toxic gases.
Group 4-A | Group 4-B |
Alcohols | Concentrated Group 1-A or 1-B wastes |
Aldehydes | Group 2-A wastes |
Halogenated hydrocarbons | |
Nitrated hydrocarbons | |
Unsaturated hydrocarbons | |
Other reactive organic compounds and solvents |
Potential consequences: Fire, explosion, or violent reaction.
Group 5-A | Group 5-B |
Spent cyanide and sulfide solutions | Group 1-B wastes |
Potential consequences: Generation of toxic hydrogen cyanide or hydrogen sulfide gas.
Group 6-A | Group 6-B |
Chlorates | Acetic acid and other organic acids |
Chlorine | Concentrated mineral acids |
Chlorites | Group 2-A wastes |
Chromic acid | Group 4-A wastes |
Hyphochlorites | Other flammable and combustible wastes |
Nitrates | |
Nitric acid, fuming | |
Perchlorates | |
Permanganates | |
Peroxides | |
Other strong oxidizers |
Potential consequences: Fire, explosion, or violent reaction.
Source: "Law, Regulations, and Guidelines for Handling of Hazardous Waste." California Department of Health, February 1975.
Appendix VI to Section 265 - Compounds With Henry's Law Constant Less Than 0.1 Y/X
Compound name | CAS No. |
Acetaldol | 107-89-1 |
Acetamide | 60-35-5 |
2-Acetylaminofluorene | 53-96-3 |
3-Acetyl-5-hydroxypiperidine | |
3-Acetylpiperidine | 618-42-8 |
1-Acetyl-2-thiourea | 591-08-2 |
Acrylamide | 79-06-1 |
Acrylic acid | 79-10-7 |
Adenine | 73-24-5 |
Adipic acid | 124-04-9 |
Adiponitrile | 111-69-3 |
Alachlor | 15972-60-8 |
Aldicarb | 116-06-3 |
Ametryn | 834-12-8 |
4-Aminobiphenyl | 92-67-1 |
4-Aminopyridine | 504-24-5 |
Aniline | 62-53-3 |
o-Anisidine | 90-04-0 |
Anthraquinone | 84-65-1 |
Atrazine | 1912-24-9 |
Benzenearsonic acid | 98-05-5 |
Benzenesulfonic acid | 98-11-3 |
Benzidine | 92-87-5 |
Benzo(a)anthracene | 56-55-3 |
Benzo(k)fluoranthene | 207-08-9 |
Benzoic acid | 65-85-0 |
Benzo(g,h,i)perylene | 191-24-2 |
Benzo(a)pyrene | 50-32-8 |
Benzyl alcohol | 100-51-6 |
gamma-BHC | 58-89-9 |
Bis(2-ethylhexyl)phthalate | 117-81-7 |
Bromochloromethyl acetate | |
Bromoxynil | 1689-84-5 |
Butyric acid | 107-92-6 |
Caprolactam (hexahydro-2H-azepin-2-one) | 105-60-2 |
Catechol (o-dihydroxybenzene) | 120-80-9 |
Cellulose | 9004-34-6 |
Cell wall | |
Chlorhydrin (3-Chloro-1,2-propanediol) | 96-24-2 |
Chloroacetic acid | 79-11-8 |
2-Chloroacetophenone | 93-76-5 |
p-Chloroaniline | 106-47-8 |
p-Chlorobenzophenone | 134-85-0 |
Chlorobenzilate | 510-15-6 |
p-Chloro-m-cresol (6-chloro-m-cresol) | 59-50-7 |
3-Chloro-2,5-diketopyrrolidine | |
Chloro-1,2-ethane diol | |
4-Chlorophenol | 106-48-9 |
Chlorophenol polymers (2-chlorophenol & 4-chlorophenol) | 95-57-8 & 106-48-9 |
1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea | 5344-82-1 |
Chrysene | 218-01-9 |
Citric acid | 77-92-9 |
Creosote | 8001-58-9 |
m-Cresol | 108-39-4 |
o-Cresol | 95-48-7 |
p-Cresol | 106-44-5 |
Cresol (mixed isomers) | 1319-77-3 |
4-Cumylphenol | 27576-86 |
Cyanide | 57-12-5 |
4-Cyanomethyl benzoate | |
Diazinon | 333-41-5 |
Dibenzo(a,h)anthracene | 53-70-3 |
Dibutylphthalate | 84-74-2 |
2,5-Dichloroaniline (N,N'-dichloroaniline) | 95-82-9 |
2,6-Dichlorobenzonitrile11 | 1194-65-6 |
2,6-Dichloro-4-nitroaniline | 99-30-9 |
2,5-Dichlorophenol | 333-41-5 |
3,4-Dichlorotetrahydrofuran | 3511-19 |
Dichlorvos (DDVP) | 62-73-7 |
Diethanolamine | 111-42-2 |
N,N-Diethylaniline | 91-66-7 |
Diethylene glycol | 111-46-6 |
Diethylene glycol dimethyl ether (dimethyl Carbitol) | 111-96-6 |
Diethylene glycol monobutyl ether (butyl Carbitol) | 112-34-5 |
Diethylene glycol monoethyl ether acetate (Carbitol acetate) | 112-15-2 |
Diethylene glycol monoethyl ether (Carbitol Cellosolve) | 111-90-0 |
Diethylene glycol monomethyl ether (methyl Carbitol) | 111-77-3 |
N,N'-Diethylhydrazine | 1615-80-1 |
Diethyl (4-methylumbelliferyl) thionophosphate | 299-45-6 |
Diethyl phosphorothioate | 126-75-0 |
N,N'-Diethylpropionamide | 15299-99-7 |
Dimethoate | 60-51-5 |
2,3-Dimethoxystrychnidin-10-one | 357-57-3 |
4-Dimethylaminoazobenzene | 60-11-7 |
7,12-Dimethylbenz(a)anthracene | 57-97-6 |
3,3-Dimethylbenzidine | 119-93-7 |
Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride | 79-44-7 |
Dimethyldisulfide | 624-92-0 |
Dimethylformamide | 68-12-2 |
1,1-Dimethylhydrazine | 57-14-7 |
Dimethylphthalate | 131-11-3 |
Dimethylsulfone | 67-71-0 |
Dimethylsulfoxide | 67-68-5 |
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol | 534-52-1 |
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine | 122-66-7 |
Dipropylene glycol (1,1'-oxydi-2-propanol) | 110-98-5 |
Endrin | 72-20-8 |
Epinephrine | 51-43-4 |
mono-Ethanolamine | 141-43-5 |
Ethyl carbamate (urethane) | 5-17-96 |
Ethylene glycol | 107-21-1 |
Ethylene glycol monobutyl ether (butyl Cellosolve) | 111-76-2 |
Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether (Cellosolve) | 110-80-5 |
Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether acetate (Cellosolve acetate) | 111-15-9 |
Ethylene glycol monomethyl ether (methyl Cellosolve) | 109-86-4 |
Ethylene glycol monophenyl ether (phenyl Cellosolve) | 122-99-6 |
Ethylene glycol monopropyl ether (propyl Cellosolve) | 2807-30-9 |
Ethylene thiourea (2-imidazolidinethione) | 96-45-7 |
4-Ethylmorpholine | 100-74-3 |
3-Ethylphenol | 620-17-7 |
Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt | 62-74-8 |
Formaldehyde | 50-00-0 |
Formamide | 75-12-7 |
Formic acid | 64-18-6 |
Fumaric acid | 110-17-8 |
Glutaric acid | 110-94-1 |
Glycerin (Glycerol) | 56-81-5 |
Glycidol | 556-52-5 |
Glycinamide | 598-41-4 |
Glyphosate | 1071-83-6 |
Guthion | 86-50-0 |
Hexamethylene-1,6-diisocyanate (1,6-diisocyanatohexane) | 822-06-0 |
Hexamethyl phosphoramide | 680-31-9 |
Hexanoic acid | 142-62-1 |
Hydrazine | 302-01-2 |
Hydrocyanic acid | 74-90-8 |
Hydroquinone | 123-31-9 |
Hydroxy-2-propionitrile (hydracrylonitrile) | 109-78-4 |
Indeno (1,2,3-cd) pyrene | 193-39-5 |
Lead acetate | 301-04-2 |
Lead subacetate (lead acetate, monobasic) | 1335-32-6 |
Leucine | 61-90-5 |
Malathion | 121-75-5 |
Maleic acid | 110-16-7 |
Maleic anhydride | 108-31-6 |
Mesityl oxide | 141-79-7 |
Methane sulfonic acid | 75-75-2 |
Methomyl | 16752-77-5 |
p-Methoxyphenol | 150-76-5 |
Methyl acrylate | 96-33-3 |
4,4'-Methylene-bis-(2-chloroaniline) | 101-14-4 |
4,4'-Methylenediphenyl diisocyanate (diphenyl methane diisocyanate) | 101-68-8 |
4,4'-Methylenedianiline | 101-77-9 |
Methylene diphenylamine (MDA) | |
5-Methylfurfural | 620-02-0 |
Methylhydrazine | 60-34-4 |
Methyliminoacetic acid | |
Methyl methane sulfonate | 66-27-3 |
1 -Methyl-2-methoxyaziridine | |
Methylparathion | 298-00-0 |
Methyl sulfuric acid (sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester) | 77-78-1 |
4-Methylthiophenol | 106-45-6 |
Monomethylformamide (N-methylformamide) | 123-39-7 |
Nabam | 142-59-6 |
alpha-Naphthol | 90-15-3 |
beta-Naphthol | 135-19-3 |
alpha-Naphthylamine | 134-32-7 |
beta-Naphthylamine | 91-59-8 |
Neopentyl glycol (dimethylpropane) | 126-30-7 |
Niacinamide | 98-92-0 |
o-Nitroaniline | 88-74-4 |
Nitroglycerin | 55-63-0 |
2-Nitrophenol | 88-75-5 |
4-Nitrophenol | 100-02-7 |
N-Nitrosodimethylamine | 62-75-9 |
Nitrosoguanidine | 674-81-7 |
N-Nitroso-n-methylurea | 684-93-5 |
N-Nitrosomorpholine (4-nitrosomorpholine) | 59-89-2 |
Oxalic acid | 144-62-7 |
Parathion | 56-38-2 |
Pentaerythritol | 115-77-5 |
Phenacetin | 62-44-2 |
Phenol | 108-95-2 |
Phenylacetic acid | 103-82-2 |
m-Phenylene diamine | 108-45-2 |
o-Phenylene diamine | 95-54-5 |
p-Phenylene diamine | 106-50-3 |
Phenyl mercuric acetate | 62-38-4 |
Phorate | 298-02-2 |
Phthalic anhydride | 85-44-9 |
alpha-Picoline (2-methyl pyridine) | 109-06-8 |
1,3-Propane sultone | 1120-71-4 |
beta-Propiolactone | 57-57-8 |
Proporur (Baygon) | |
Propylene glycol | 57-55-6 |
Pyrene | 129-00-0 |
Pyridinium bromide | 39416-48-3 |
Quinoline | 91-22-5 |
Quinone (p-benzoquinone) | 106-51-4 |
Resorcinol | 108-46-3 |
Simazine | 122-34-9 |
Sodium acetate | 127-09-3 |
Sodium formate | 141-53-7 |
Strychnine | 57-24-9 |
Succinic acid | 110-15-6 |
Succinimide | 123-56-8 |
Sulfanilic acid | 121-47-1 |
Terephthalic acid | 100-21-0 |
Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate | 3689-24-5 |
Tetraethylenepentamine | 112-57-2 |
Thiofanox | 39196-18-4 |
Thiosemicarbazide | 79-19-6 |
2,4-Toluenediamine | 95-80-7 |
2,6-Toluenediamine | 823-40-5 |
3,4-Toluenediamine | 496-72-0 |
2,4-Toluene diisocyanate | 584-84-9 |
p-Toluic acid | 99-94-5 |
m-Toluidine | 108-44-1 |
1,1,2-Trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane | 76-13-1 |
Triethanolamine | 102-71-6 |
Triethylene glycol dimethyl ether | |
Tripropylene glycol | 24800-44-0 |
Warfarin | 81-81-2 |
3,4-Xylenol (3,4-dimethylphenol) | 95-65-8 |
Generators and transporters of materials that are used in a manner that constitutes disposal are subject to the applicable requirements of Sections 262 and 263 of this rule, and the notification requirement under Section 3010 of RCRA.
Owners or operators of facilities that store recyclable materials that are to be used in a manner that constitutes disposal, but who are not the ultimate users of the materials, are regulated under all applicable provisions of subsections A through L of Sections 264, 265, 267 and Section 270 of this rule and the notification requirement under Section 3010 of RCRA.
§ 266.80(a) Table:
.....If your batteries | And if you | Then you. | .. . And you |
(1) Will be reclaimed through regeneration (such as by electrolyte replacement). | .. | .are exempt from §§ 262 (except for § 262.11), 263, 264, 265, 266, 268, and 270 of this rule, and the notification requirements at § 3010 of RCRA. | ... are subject to § 261 and § 262.11 of this rule. |
(2) Will be reclaimed other than through regeneration. | generate, collect, and/or transport these batteries. | .. are exempt from Sections 262 (except for § 262.11), 263, 264, 265, 266, and 270 of this rule, and the notification requirements at § 3010 of RCRA. | ... are subject to § 261 and § 262.11, and applicable provisions under § 268. |
(3) Will be reclaimed other than through regeneration. | store these batteries but you aren't the reclaimer. | .. are exempt from §§ 262 (except for § 262.11), 263, 264, 265, 266, and 270 of this rule, and the notification requirements at § 3010 of RCRA. | ... are subject to § 261 and § 262.11, and applicable provisions under § 268. |
(4) Will be reclaimed other than through regeneration. | store these batteries before you reclaim them. | must comply with § 266.80(b) and as appropriate other regulatory provisions described in § 266.80(b). | ... are subject to § 261, § 262.11, and applicable provisions under § 268. |
(5) Will be reclaimed other than through regeneration. | don't store these batteries before you reclaim them. | ... are exempt from §§ 262 (except for § 262.11), 263, 264, 265, 266, and 270 of this rule, and the notification requirements at § 3010 of RCRA. | ... are subject to § 261, § 262.11, and applicable provisions under § 268. |
(6) Will be reclaimed through regeneration or any other means. | export these batteries for reclamation in a foreign country. | ... are exempt from §§ 262 (except for § 262.11, § 262.18 and subsection H), 263, 264, 265, 266, 268, and 270 of this rule, 40 CFR Part 124, and the notification requirements at Section 3010 of RCRA. | ... are subject to § 261, § 262.11, § 262.18 and § 262, subsection H of this rule. |
(7) Will be reclaimed through regeneration or any other means. | Transport these batteries in the U.S. to export them for reclamation in a foreign country. | .are exempt from §§ 263,264,265,266,268, and 270 of this rule, 40 CFR Part 124, and the notification requirements at section 3010 of RCRA. | .must comply with applicable requirements in § 262, subsection H of this rule. |
(8) Will be reclaimed other than through regeneration | Import these batteries from foreign country and store these batteries but you aren't the reclaimer | are exempt from sections 262 (except for § 262.11, § 262.18 and subsection H), 263, 264, 265, 266, 270, of this section, 40 CFR Part 124, and the notification requirements at section 3010 of RCRA | are subject to sections 261, § 262.11, § 262.18, part 262 subsection H, and applicable provisions under section 268. |
(9) Will be reclaimed other than through regeneration | Import these batteries from foreign country and store these batteries before you reclaim them | must comply with 266.80(b) and as appropriate other regulatory provisions described in 266.80(b) | are subject to sections 261, § 262.11, § 262.18, section 262 subsection H, and applicable provisions under 268. |
(10) Will be reclaimed other than through regeneration | Import these batteries from foreign country and don't store these batteries before you reclaim them | are exempt from sections 262 (except for § 262.11, § 262.18 and subsection H), 263, 264, 265, 266, 270, 124 of this section, 40 CFR Part 124, and the notification requirements at section 3010 of RCRA | are subject to sections 261, § 262.11, § 262.18, part 262 subsection H, and applicable provisions under 268. |
"I certify under penalty of law that this information was prepared under my direction or supervision in accordance with a system designed to ensure that qualified personnel properly gathered and evaluated the information and supporting documentation. Copies of all emissions tests, dispersion modeling results and other information used to determine conformance with the requirements of § 266.103(b) are available at the facility and can be obtained from the facility contact person listed above. Based on my inquiry of the person or persons who manages the facility, or those persons directly responsible for gathering the information, the information submitted is, to the best of my knowledge and belief, true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment for knowing violations.
I also acknowledge that the operating limits established in this certification pursuant to § 266.103(b) (3) and (4) are enforceable limits at which the facility can legally operate during interim status until:
I also acknowledge that the operating conditions established in this certification pursuant to § 266.103(c)(4)(iv) are enforceable limits at which the facility can legally operate during interim status until a revised certification of compliance is submitted."
where:
Win = Mass feed rate of one principal organic hazardous constituent (POHC) in the hazardous waste fired to the boiler or industrial furnace; and
Wout = Mass emission rate of the same POHC present in stack gas prior to release to the atmosphere.
Where:
Pc is the corrected concentration of the pollutant in the stack gas, Pm is the measured concentration of the pollutant in the stack gas, E is the oxygen concentration on a dry basis in the combustion air fed to the device, and Y is the measured oxygen concentration on a dry basis in the stack.
where:
n = number of carcinogenic metals
AFR = actual feed rate to the device for metal "" FRSL = feed rate screening limit provided by Appendix I of this part for metal "".
where:
Ha = Actual physical stack height
H1 = Plume rise as determined from Appendix VI of this section as a function of stack flow rate and stack gas exhaust temperature.
Tr = Terrain rise within five kilometers of the stack.
Where:
K = a parameter accounting for relative influence of stack height and plume rise;
H = physical stack height (meters);
V = stack gas flow rate (m3 /second); and
T = exhaust temperature (°K).
The stack with the lowest value of is the worst-case stack.
where:
n = number of carcinogenic metals
AER = actual emission rate for metal "i"
ERSL = emission rate screening limit provided by Appendix I of this section for metal "i".
the acceptable ambient level for the carcinogenic metals is a fraction of the RSD as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
where: n = number of carcinogenic metals
Exempt Quantities for Small Quantity Burner Exemption
Terrain-adjusted effective stack height of device (meters) | Allowable hazardous waste burning rate (gallons/month) | Terrain-adjusted effective stack height of device (meters) | Allowable hazardous waste burning rate (gallons/month) |
0 to 3.9 | 0 | 40.0 to 44.9 | 210 |
4.0 to 5.9 | 13 | 45.0 to 49.9 | 260 |
6.0 to 7.9 | 18 | 50.0 to 54.9 | 330 |
8.0 to 9.9 | 27 | 55.0 to 59.9 | 400 |
10.0 to 11.9 | 40 | 60.0 to 64.9 | 490 |
12.0 to 13.9 | 48 | 65.0 to 69.9 | 610 |
14.0 to 15.9 | 59 | 70.0 to 74.9 | 680 |
16.0 to 17.9 | 69 | 75.0 to 79.9 | 760 |
18.0 to 19.9 | 76 | 80.0 to 84.9 | 850 |
20.0 to 21.9 | 84 | 85.0 to 89.9 | 960 |
22.0 to 23.9 | 93 | 90.0 to 94.9 | 1,100 |
24.0 to 25.9 | 100 | 95.0 to 99.9 | 1,200 |
26.0 to 27.9 | 110 | 100.0 to 104.9 | 1,300 |
28.0 to 29.9 | 130 | 105.0 to 109.9 | 1,500 |
30.0 to 34.9 | 140 | 110.0 to 114.9 | 1,700 |
35.0 to 39.9 | 170 | 115.0 or greater | 1,900 |
where:
n means the number of stacks;
Actual Quantity Burned means the waste quantity burned per month in device "i";
Allowable Quantity Burned means the maximum allowable exempt quantity for stack "i" from the table in (a)(1) above.
Note: Hazardous wastes that are subject to the special requirements for small quantity generators under § 261.5 of this rule may be burned in an off-site device under the exemption provided by § 266.108, but must be included in the quantity determination for the exemption.
Boilers that operate under the special requirements of this section, and that do not burn hazardous waste containing (or derived from) EPA Hazardous Waste Nos. F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, or F027, are considered to be in conformance with the DRE standard of § 266.104(a), and a trial burn to demonstrate DRE is waived. When burning hazardous waste:
"Direct transfer equipment" means any device (including but not limited to, such devices as piping, fittings, flanges, valves, and pumps) that is used to distribute, meter, or control the flow of hazardous waste between a container (i.e., transport vehicle) and a boiler or industrial furnace.
"Container" means any portable device in which hazardous waste is transported, stored, treated, or otherwise handled, and includes transport vehicles that are containers themselves (e.g., tank trucks, tanker-trailers, and rail tank cars), and containers placed on or in a transport vehicle.
A residue derived from the burning or processing of hazardous waste in a boiler or industrial furnace is not excluded from the definition of a hazardous waste under § 261.4(b) (4), (7), or (8) unless the device and the owner or operator meet the following requirements:
Note to this paragraph (b)(2)(i): The administrative stay, under the condition that the owner or operator complies with alternative levels defined as the land disposal restriction limits specified in § 268.43 of this Rule for F039 nonwastewaters, remains in effect until further administrative action is taken and notice is published in the Federal Register and the Code of Federal Regulations.
In addition to the definitions in § 260.10, the following definitions apply to this subsection:
"Active range" means a military range that is currently in service and is being regularly used for range activities.
"Chemical agents and munitions" are defined as in 50 U.S.C. section 1521(j)(1).
"Director" is as defined in § 270.2.
"Explosives or munitions emergency response specialist" is as defined in § 260.10.
"Explosives or munitions emergency" is as defined in § 260.10.
"Explosives or munitions emergency response" is as defined in § 260.10.
"Inactive range" means a military range that is not currently being used, but that is still under military control and considered by the military to be a potential range area, and that has not been put to a new use that is incompatible with range activities.
"Military" means the Department of Defense (DOD), the Armed Services, Coast Guard, National Guard, Department of Energy (DOE), or other parties under contract or acting as an agent for the foregoing, who handle military munitions.
"Military munitions" is as defined in § 260.10.
"Military range" means designated land and water areas set aside, managed, and used to conduct research on, develop, test, and evaluate military munitions and explosives, other ordnance, or weapon systems, or to train military personnel in their use and handling. Ranges include firing lines and positions, maneuver areas, firing lanes, test pads, detonation pads, impact areas, and buffer zones with restricted access and exclusionary areas.
"Unexploded ordnance (UXO)" means military munitions that have been primed, fused, armed, or otherwise prepared for action, and have been fired, dropped, launched, projected, or placed in such a manner as to constitute a hazard to operations, installation, personnel, or material and remain unexploded either by malfunction, design, or any other cause.
Explosives and munitions emergencies involving military munitions or explosives are subject to §§ 262.10(i), 263.10(f), 264.1(g)(8), 265.1(c)(11), and 270.1(c)(3), or alternatively to § 270.61 of this rule.
The treatment and disposal of hazardous waste military munitions are subject to the applicable permitting, procedural, and technical standards in Sections 260 through 270 of this rule.
Subpart N-Conditional Exemption for Low-Level Mixed Waste Storage, Treatment, Transportation, and Disposal Terms
This subsection uses the following special definitions:
"Agreement State" means a state that has entered into an agreement with the NRC under subsection 274b of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (68 Stat. 919), to assume responsibility for regulating within its borders byproduct, source, or special nuclear material in quantities not sufficient to form a critical mass.
"Certified delivery" means certified mail with return receipt requested, or equivalent courier service, or other means, that provides the sender with a receipt confirming delivery.
"Director" refers to the definition in § 270.2.
"Eligible Naturally Occurring and/or Accelerator-produced Radioactive Material" (NARM) is NARM that is eligible for the Transportation and Disposal Conditional Exemption. It is a NARM waste that contains RCRA hazardous waste, meets the waste acceptance criteria of, and is allowed by State NARM regulations to be disposed of at a low-level radioactive waste disposal facility (LLRWDF) licensed in accordance with 10 CFR part 61 or NRC Agreement State equivalent regulations.
"Exempted waste" means a waste that meets the eligibility criteria in § 266.225 and meets all of the conditions in § 266.230, or meets the eligibility criteria in § 266.310 and complies with all the conditions in § 266.315. Such waste is conditionally exempted from the regulatory definition of hazardous waste described in § 261.3 of this rule.
"Hazardous Waste" means any material which is defined to be hazardous waste in accordance with § 261.3, "Definition of Hazardous Waste.''
"Land Disposal Restriction (LDR) Treatment Standards" means treatment standards, under Section 268 of this rule, that a RCRA hazardous waste must meet before it can be disposed of in a RCRA hazardous waste land disposal unit.
"License" means a license issued by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, or NRC Agreement State, to users that manage radionuclides regulated by NRC, or NRC Agreement States, under authority of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
"Low-Level Mixed Waste" (LLMW) is a waste that contains both low-level radioactive waste and RCRA hazardous waste.
"Low-Level Radioactive Waste" (LLW) is a radioactive waste which contains source, special nuclear, or by-product material, and which is not classified as high-level radioactive waste, transuranic waste, spent nuclear fuel, or byproduct material as defined in section 11e.(2) of the Atomic Energy Act. (See also NRC definition of "waste" at 10 CFR 61.2)
"Mixed Waste" means a waste that contains both RCRA hazardous waste and source, special nuclear, or byproduct material subject to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
"Naturally Occurring and/or Accelerator-produced Radioactive Material" (NARM) means radioactive materials that:
"NRC" means the U. S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
"We" or "us" within this subpart, means the Director as defined in § 270.2 of this rule. "You" means a generator, treater, or other handler of low-level mixed waste or eligible NARM.
Storage and Treatment Conditional Exemption and Eligibility
The storage and treatment conditional exemption exempts your low-level mixed waste from the regulatory definition of hazardous waste in § 261.3 if your waste meets the eligibility criteria in § 266.225 and you meet the conditions in § 266.230.
Low-level mixed waste (LLMW), defined in § 266.210, is eligible for this conditional exemption if it is generated and managed by you under a single NRC or NRC Agreement State license. (Mixed waste generated at a facility with a different license number and shipped to your facility for storage or treatment requires a permit and is ineligible for this exemption. In addition, NARM waste is ineligible this exemption.)
Treatment
You may treat your low-level mixed waste at your facility within a tank or container in accordance with the terms of your NRC or NRC Agreement State license. Treatment that cannot be done in a tank or container without a RCRA permit (such as incineration) is not allowed under this exemption.
Loss of Conditional Exemption
Recordkeeping
Reentry Into RCRA
Storage Unit Closure
Interim status and permitted storage units that have been used to store only LLMW prior to the effective date of subpart N of this part and, after that date, store only LLMW which becomes exempt under this subpart N, are not subject to the closure requirements of Sections 264 and 265 of this rule. Storage units (or portions of units) that have been used to store both LLMW and non-mixed hazardous waste prior to the effective date of subpart N or are used to store both after that date remain subject to closure requirements with respect to the non-mixed hazardous waste.
Transportation and Disposal Conditional Exemption
This conditional exemption exempts your waste from the regulatory definition of hazardous waste in § 261.3 if your waste meets the eligibility criteria under § 266.310, and you meet the conditions in § 266.315.
Eligibility
Eligible waste must be:
Conditions
You must meet the following conditions for your eligible waste to qualify for and maintain the exemption:
Your LLMW or eligible NARM waste must meet Land Disposal Restriction (LDR) treatment standards specified in Section 268, subpart D of this rule.
If you are not already subject to NRC, or NRC Agreement State equivalent manifest and transportation regulations for the shipment of your waste, you must meet the manifest requirements under 10 CFR 20.2006 (or NRC Agreement State equivalent regulations), and the transportation requirements under 10 CFR 1.5 (or NRC Agreement State equivalent regulations) to ship the exempted waste.
The exemption becomes effective once all the following have occurred:
Your exempted waste must be disposed of in a LLRWDF that is regulated and licensed by NRC under 10 CFR part 61 or by an NRC Agreement State under equivalent State regulations, including State NARM licensing regulations for eligible NARM.
Your exempted waste must be placed in containers before it is disposed. The container must be:
Notification
Recordkeeping
In addition to those records required by your NRC or NRC Agreement State license, you must keep records as follows:
Loss of Transportation and Disposal Conditional Exemption
Appendices
Appendix I.-Tier I and Tier II Feed Rate and Emissions Screening Limits for Metals
Table I-A.-Tier I and Tier II Feed Rate and Emissions Screening Limits for Noncarcinogenic Metals for Facilities in Noncomplex Terrain [Values for urban areas]
Terrain adjusted eff. stack ht. (m) | Antimony (g/hr) | Barium (g/hr) | Lead (g/hr) | Mercury (g/hr) | Silver (g/hr) | Thallium (g/hr) |
4 | 6.0E + 01 | 1.0E + 04 | 1.8E + 01 | 6.0E + 01 | 6.0E + 02 | 6.0E + 01 |
6 | 6.8E + 01 | 1.1E + 04 | 2.0E + 01 | 6.8E + 01 | 6.8E + 02 | 6.8E + 01 |
8 | 7.6E + 01 | 1.3E + 04 | 2.3E + 01 | 7.6E + 01 | 7.6E + 02 | 7.6E + 01 |
10 | 8.6E + 01 | 1.4E + 04 | 2.6E + 01 | 8.6E + 01 | 8.6E + 02 | 8.6E + 01 |
12 | 9.6E + 01 | 1.7E + 04 | 3.0E + 01 | 9.6E + 01 | 9.6E + 02 | 9.6E + 01 |
14 | 1.1E + 02 | 1.8E + 04 | 3.4E + 01 | 1.1E + 02 | 1.1E + 03 | 1.1E + 02 |
16 | 1.3E + 02 | 2.1E + 04 | 3.6E + 01 | 1.3E + 02 | 1.3E + 03 | 1.3E + 02 |
18 | 1.4E + 02 | 2.4E + 04 | 4.3E + 01 | 1.4E + 02 | 1.4E + 03 | 1.4E + 02 |
20 | 1.6E + 02 | 2.7E + 04 | 4.6E + 01 | 1.6E + 02 | 1.6E + 03 | 1.6E + 02 |
22 | 1.8E + 02 | 3.0E + 04 | 5.4E + 01 | 1.8E + 02 | 1.8E + 03 | 1.8E + 02 |
24 | 2.0E + 02 | 3.4E + 04 | 6.0E + 01 | 2.0E + 02 | 2.0E + 03 | 2.0E + 02 |
26 | 2.3E + 02 | 3.9E + 04 | 6.8E + 01 | 2.3E + 02 | 2.3E + 03 | 2.3E + 02 |
28 | 2.6E + 02 | 4.3E + 04 | 7.8E + 01 | 2.6E + 02 | 2.6E + 03 | 2.6E + 02 |
30 | 3.0E + 02 | 5.0E + 04 | 9.0E + 01 | 3.0E + 02 | 3.0E + 03 | 3.0E + 02 |
35 | 4.0E + 02 | 6.6E + 04 | 1.1E + 02 | 4.0E + 02 | 4.0E + 03 | 4.0E + 02 |
40 | 4.6E + 02 | 7.8E + 04 | 1.4E + 02 | 4.6E + 02 | 4.6E + 03 | 4.6E + 02 |
45 | 6.0E + 02 | 1.0E + 05 | 1.8E + 02 | 6.0E + 02 | 6.0E + 03 | 6.0E + 02 |
50 | 7.8E + 02 | 1.3E + 05 | 2.3E + 02 | 7.8E + 02 | 7.8E + 03 | 7.8E + 02 |
55 | 9.6E + 02 | 1.7E + 05 | 3.0E + 02 | 9.6E + 02 | 9.6E + 03 | 9.6E + 02 |
60 | 1.2E + 03 | 2.0E + 05 | 3.6E + 02 | 1.2E + 03 | 1.2E + 04 | 1.2E + 03 |
65 | 1.5E + 03 | 2.5E + 05 | 4.3E + 02 | 1.5E + 03 | 1.5E + 04 | 1.5E + 03 |
70 | 1.7E + 03 | 2.8E + 05 | 5.0E + 02 | 1.7E + 03 | 1.7E + 04 | 1.7E + 03 |
75 | 1.9E + 03 | 3.2E + 05 | 5.8E + 02 | 1.9E + 03 | 1.9E + 04 | 1.9E + 03 |
80 | 2.2E + 03 | 3.6E + 05 | 6.4E + 02 | 2.2E + 03 | 2.2E + 04 | 2.2E + 03 |
85 | 2.5E + 03 | 4.0E + 05 | 7.6E + 02 | 2.5E + 03 | 2.5E + 04 | 2.5E + 03 |
90 | 2.8E + 03 | 4.6E + 05 | 8.2E + 02 | 2.8E + 03 | 2.8E + 04 | 2.8E + 03 |
95 | 3.2E + 03 | 5.4E + 05 | 9.6E + 02 | 3.2E + 03 | 3.2E + 04 | 3.2E + 03 |
100 | 3.6E + 03 | 6.0E + 05 | 1.1E + 03 | 3.6E + 03 | 3.6E + 04 | 3.6E + 03 |
105 | 4.0E + 03 | 6.8E + 05 | 1.2E + 03 | 4.0E + 03 | 4.0E + 04 | 4.0E + 03 |
110 | 4.6E + 03 | 7.8E + 05 | 1.4E + 03 | 4.6E + 03 | 4.6E + 04 | 4.6E + 03 |
115 | 5.4E + 03 | 1.6E + 03 | 8.6E + 05 | 5.4E + 03 | 5.4E + 04 | 5.4E + 03 |
120 | 6.0E + 03 | 1.0E + 06 | 1.8E + 03 | 6.0E + 03 | 6.0E + 04 | 6.0E + 03 |
Table I-B.-Tier I and Tier II Feed Rate and Emissions Screening Limits for Noncarcinogenic Metals for Facilities in Noncomplex Terrain
Terrain adjusted eff. stack ht. (m) | Antimony (g/hr) | Barium (g/hr) | Lead (g/hr) | Mercury (g/hr) | Silver (g/hr) | Thallium (g/hr) |
4 | 3.1E + 01 | 5.2E + 03 | 9.4E + 00 | 3.1E + 01 | 3.1E + 02 | 3.1E + 01 |
6 | 3.6E + 01 | 6.0E + 03 | 1.1E + 01 | 3.6E + 01 | 3.6E + 02 | 3.6E + 01 |
8 | 4.0E + 01 | 6.8E + 03 | 1.2E + 01 | 4.0E + 01 | 4.0E + 02 | 4.0E + 01 |
10 | 4.6E + 01 | 7.8E + 03 | 1.4E + 01 | 4.6E + 01 | 4.6E + 02 | 4.6E + 01 |
12 | 5.8E + 01 | 9.6E + 03 | 1.7E + 01 | 5.8E + 01 | 5.8E + 02 | 5.8E + 01 |
14 | 6.8E + 01 | 1.1E + 04 | 2.1E + 01 | 6.8E + 01 | 6.8E + 02 | 6.8E + 01 |
16 | 8.6E + 01 | 1.4E + 04 | 2.6E + 01 | 8.6E + 01 | 8.6E + 02 | 8.6E + 01 |
18 | 1.1E + 02 | 1.8E + 04 | 3.2E + 01 | 1.1E + 02 | 1.1E + 03 | 1.1E + 02 |
20 | 1.3E + 02 | 2.2E + 04 | 4.0E + 01 | 1.3E + 02 | 1.3E + 03 | 1.3E + 02 |
22 | 1.7E + 02 | 2.8E + 04 | 5.0E + 01 | 1.7E + 02 | 1.7E + 03 | 1.7E + 02 |
24 | 2.2E + 02 | 3.6E + 04 | 6.4E + 01 | 2.2E + 02 | 2.2E + 03 | 2.2E + 02 |
26 | 2.8E + 02 | 4.6E + 04 | 8.2E + 01 | 2.8E + 02 | 2.8E + 03 | 2.8E + 02 |
28 | 3.5E + 02 | 5.8E + 04 | 1.0E + 02 | 3.5E + 02 | 3.5E + 03 | 3.5E + 02 |
30 | 4.3E + 02 | 7.6E + 04 | 1.3E + 02 | 4.3E + 02 | 4.3E + 03 | 4.3E + 02 |
35 | 7.2E + 02 | 1.2E + 05 | 2.1E + 02 | 7.2E + 02 | 7.2E + 03 | 7.2E + 02 |
40 | 1.1E + 03 | 1.8E + 05 | 3.2E + 02 | 1.1E + 03 | 1.1E + 04 | 1.1E + 03 |
45 | 1.5E + 03 | 2.5E + 05 | 4.6E + 02 | 1.5E + 03 | 1.5E + 04 | 1.5E + 03 |
50 | 2.0E + 03 | 3.3E + 05 | 6.0E + 02 | 2.0E + 03 | 2.0E + 04 | 2.0E + 03 |
55 | 2.6E + 03 | 4.4E + 05 | 7.8E + 02 | 2.6E + 03 | 2.6E + 04 | 2.6E + 03 |
60 | 3.4E + 03 | 5.8E + 05 | 1.0E + 03 | 3.4E + 03 | 3.4E + 04 | 3.4E + 03 |
65 | 4.6E + 03 | 7.6E + 05 | 1.4E + 03 | 4.6E + 03 | 4.6E + 04 | 4.6E + 03 |
70 | 5 4E + 03 | 9 OE + 05 | 1 6E + 03 | 5 4E + 03 | 5 4E + 04 | 5 4E + 03 |
75 | 6 4E + 03 | 1 IE+ 06 | 1 9E + 03 | 6 4E + 03 | 6 4E + 04 | 6 4E + 03 |
80 | 7 6E + 03 | 1 3E + 06 | 2 3E + 03 | 7 6E + 03 | 7 6E + 04 | 7 6E + 03 |
85 | 9 4E + 03 | 1 5E + 06 | 2 8E + 03 | 9 4E + 03 | 9 4E + 04 | 9 4E + 03 |
90 | 1 IE + 04 | 1 8E + 06 | 3 3E + 03 | 1 IE + 04 | 1 lE + 05 | 1 IE + 04 |
95 | 1 3E + 04 | 2 2E + 06 | 3 9E + 03 | 1 3E + 04 | 1 3E + 05 | 1 3E + 04 |
100 | 1 5E + 04 | 2 6E + 06 | 4 6E + 03 | 1 5E + 04 | 1 5E + 05 | 1 5E + 04 |
105 | 1 8E + 04 | 3 OE + 06 | 5 4E + 03 | 1 8E + 04 | 1 8E + 05 | 1 8E + 04 |
110 | 2 2E + 04 | 3 6E + 06 | 6 6E + 03 | 2 2E + 04 | 2 2E + 05 | 2 2E + 04 |
115 | 2 6E + 04 | 4 4E + 06 | 7 8E + 03 | 2 6E + 04 | 2 6E + 05 | 2 6E + 04 |
120 | 3 IE + 04 | 5 OE + 06 | 9 2E + 03 | 3 IE + 04 | 3 IE+ 05 | 3 IE + 04 |
Table I-C.-Tier I and Tier II Feed Rate and Emissions Screening Limits for Noncarcinogenic Metals for Facilities in Complex Terrain
Values for urban and rural areas
Terrain adjusted eff. stack ht. (m) | Antimony (g/hr) | Barium (g/hr) | Lead (g/hr) | Mercury (g/hr) | Silver (g/hr) | Thallium (g/hr) |
4 | 1.4E + 01 | 2.4E + 03 | 4.3E + 00 | 1.4E + 01 | 1.4E + 02 | 1.4E + 01 |
6 | 2.1E + 01 | 3.5E + 03 | 6.2E + 00 | 2.1E + 01 | 2.1E + 02 | 2.1E + 01 |
8 | 3.0E + 01 | 5.0E + 03 | 9.2E + 00 | 3.0E + 01 | 3.0E + 02 | 3.0E + 01 |
10 | 4.3E + 01 | 7.6E + 03 | 1.3E + 01 | 4.3E + 01 | 4.3E + 02 | 4.3E + 01 |
12 | 5.4E + 01 | 9.0E + 03 | 1.7E + 01 | 5.4E + 01 | 5.4E + 02 | 5.4E + 01 |
14 | 6.8E + 01 | l.lE + 04 | 2.0E + 01 | 6.8E + 01 | 6.8E + 02 | 6.8E + 01 |
16 | 7.8E + 01 | 1.3E + 04 | 2.4E + 01 | 7.8E + 01 | 7.8E + 02 | 7.8E + 01 |
18 | 8.6E + 01 | 1.4E + 04 | 2.6E + 01 | 8.6E + 01 | 8.6E + 02 | 8.6E + 01 |
20 | 9.6E + 01 | 1.6E + 04 | 2.9E + 01 | 9.6E + 01 | 9.6E + 02 | 9.6E + 01 |
22 | l.OE + 02 | 1.8E + 04 | 3.2E + 01 | l.OE + 02 | l.OE + 03 | l.OE + 02 |
24 | 1.2E + 02 | 1.9E + 04 | 3.5E + 01 | 1.2E + 02 | 1.2E + 03 | 1.2E + 02 |
26 | 1.3E + 02 | 2.2E + 04 | 3.6E + 01 | 1.3E + 02 | 1.3E + 03 | 1.3E + 02 |
28 | 1.4E + 02 | 2.4E + 04 | 4.3E + 01 | 1.4E + 02 | 1.4E + 03 | 1.4E + 02 |
30 | 1.6E + 02 | 2.7E + 04 | 4.6E + 01 | 1.6E + 02 | 1.6E + 03 | 1.6E + 02 |
35 | 2.0E + 02 | 3.3E + 04 | 5.8E + 01 | 2.0E + 02 | 2.0E + 03 | 2.0E + 02 |
40 | 2.4E + 02 | 4.0E + 04 | 7.2E + 01 | 2.4E + 02 | 2.4E + 03 | 2.4E + 02 |
45 | 3.0E + 02 | 5.0E + 04 | 9.0E + 01 | 3.0E + 02 | 3.0E + 03 | 3.0E + 02 |
50 | 3.6E + 02 | 6.0E + 04 | 1.1E + 02 | 3.6E + 02 | 3.6E + 03 | 3.6E + 02 |
55 | 4.6E + 02 | 7.6E + 04 | 1.4E + 02 | 4.6E + 02 | 4.6E + 03 | 4.6E + 02 |
60 | 5.8E + 02 | 9.4E + 04 | 1.7E + 02 | 5.8E + 02 | 5.8E + 03 | 5.8E + 02 |
65 | 6.8E + 02 | 1.1E + 05 | 2.1E + 02 | 6.8E + 02 | 6.8E + 03 | 6.8E + 02 |
70 | 7.8E + 02 | 1.3E + 05 | 2.4E + 02 | 7.8E + 02 | 7.8E + 03 | 7.8E + 02 |
75 | 8.6E + 02 | 1.4E + 05 | 2.6E + 02 | 8.6E + 02 | 8.6E + 03 | 8.6E + 02 |
80 | 9.6E + 02 | 1.6E + 05 | 2.9E + 02 | 9.6E + 02 | 9.6E + 03 | 9.6E + 02 |
85 | 1.1E + 03 | 1.8E + 05 | 3.3E + 02 | 1.1E + 03 | 1.1E + 04 | 1.1E + 03 |
90 | 1.2E + 03 | 2.0E + 05 | 3.6E + 02 | 1.2E + 03 | 1.2E + 04 | 1.2E + 03 |
95 | 1.4E + 03 | 2.3E + 05 | 4.0E + 02 | 1.4E + 03 | 1.4E + 04 | 1.4E + 03 |
100 | 1.5E + 03 | 2.6E + 05 | 4.6E + 02 | 1.5E + 03 | 1.5E + 04 | 1.5E + 03 |
105 | 1.7E + 03 | 2.8E + 05 | 5.0E + 02 | 1.7E + 03 | 1.7E + 04 | 1.7E + 03 |
110 | 1.9E + 03 | 3.2E + 05 | 5.8E + 02 | 1.9E + 03 | 1.9E + 04 | 1.9E + 03 |
115 | 2.1E + 03 | 3.6E + 05 | 6.4E + 02 | 2.1E + 03 | 2.1E + 04 | 2.1E + 03 |
120 | 2.4E + 03 | 4.0E + 05 | 7.2E + 02 | 2.4E + 03 | 2.4E + 04 | 2.4E + 03 |
Table I-D.-Tier I and Tier II Feed Rate and Emissions Screening Limits for Carcinogenic Metals for Facilities in Noncomplex Terrain
Values for use in urban areas | Values for use in rural areas | |||||||
Terrain adjusted | Arsenic (g/hr) | Cadmium (g/hr) | Chromium (g/hr) | Beryllium (g/hr) | Arsenic (g/hr) | Cadmium (g/hr) | Chromium (g/hr) | Beryllium (g/hr) |
eff. stack ht. (m) | ||||||||
4 | 4.6E-01 | 1.1E + 00 | 1.7E-01 | 8.2E-01 | 2.4E-01 | 5.8E-01 | 8.6E-02 | 4.3E-01 |
6 | 5.4E-01 | 1.3E + 00 | 1.9E-01 | 9.4E-01 | 2.8E-01 | 6.6E-01 | 1.0E-01 | 5.0E-01 |
8 | 6.0E-01 | 1.4E + 00 | 2.2E-01 | 1.1E + 00 | 3.2E-01 | 7.6E-01 | 1.1E-01 | 5.6E-01 |
10 | 6.8E-01 | 1.6E + 00 | 2.4E-01 | 1.2E + 00 | 3.6E-01 | 8.6E-01 | 1.3E-01 | 6.4E-01 |
12 | 7.6E-01 | 1.8E + 00 | 2.7E-01 | 1.4E + 00 | 4.3E-01 | 1.1E + 00 | 1.6E-01 | 7.8E-01 |
14 | 8.6E-01 | 2.1E + 00 | 3.1E-01 | 1.5E + 00 | 5.4E-01 | 1.3E + 00 | 2.0E-01 | 9.6E-01 |
16 | 9.6E-01 | 2.3E + 00 | 3.5E-01 | 1.7E + 00 | 6.8E-01 | 1.6E + 00 | 2.4E-01 | 1.2E + 00 |
18 | 1.1E + 00 | 2.6E + 00 | 4.0E-01 | 2.0E + 00 | 8.2E-01 | 2.0E + 00 | 3.0E-01 | 1.5E + 00 |
20 | 1.2E + 00 | 3.0E + 00 | 4.4E-01 | 2.2E + 00 | 1.0E + 00 | 2.5E + 00 | 3.7E-01 | 1.9E + 00 |
22 | 1.4E + 00 | 3.4E + 00 | 5.0E-01 | 2.5E + 00 | 1.3E + 00 | 3.2E + 00 | 4.8E-01 | 2.4E + 00 |
24 | 1.6E + 00 | 3.9E + 00 | 5.8E-01 | 2.8E + 00 | 1.7E + 00 | 4.0E + 00 | 6.0E-01 | 3.0E + 00 |
26 | 1.8E + 00 | 4.3E + 00 | 6.4E-01 | 3.2E + 00 | 2.1E + 00 | 5.0E + 00 | 7.6E-01 | 3.9E + 00 |
28 | 2.0E + 00 | 4.8E + 00 | 7.2E-01 | 3.6E + 00 | 2.7E + 00 | 6.4E + 00 | 9.8E-01 | 5.0E + 00 |
30 | 2.3E + 00 | 5.4E + 00 | 8.2E-01 | 4.0E + 00 | 3.5E + 00 | 8.2E + 00 | 1.2E + 00 | 6.2E + 00 |
35 | 3.0E + 00 | 6.8E + 00 | 1.0E + 00 | 5.4E + 00 | 5.4E + 00 | 1.3E + 01 | 1.9E + 00 | 9.6E + 00 |
40 | 3.6E + 00 | 9.0E + 00 | 1.3E + 00 | 6.8E + 00 | 8.2E + 00 | 2.0E + 01 | 3.0E + 00 | 1.5E + 01 |
45 | 4.6E + 00 | 1.1E + 01 | 1.7E + 00 | 8.6E + 00 | 1.1E + 01 | 2.8E + 01 | 4.2E + 00 | 2.1E + 01 |
50 | 6.0E + 00 | 1.4E + 01 | 2.2E + 00 | 1.1E + 01 | 1.5E + 01 | 3.7E + 01 | 5.4E + 00 | 2.8E + 01 |
55 | 7.6E + 00 | 1.8E + 01 | 2.7E + 00 | 1.4E + 01 | 2.0E + 01 | 5.0E + 01 | 7.2E + 00 | 3.6E + 01 |
60 | 9.4E + 00 | 2.2E + 01 | 3.4E + 00 | 1.7E + 01 | 2.7E + 01 | 6.4E + 01 | 9.6E + 00 | 4.8E + 01 |
65 | 1.1E + 01 | 2.8E + 01 | 4.2E + 00 | 2.1E + 01 | 3.6E + 01 | 8.6E + 01 | 1.3E + 01 | 6.4E + 01 |
70 | 1.3E + 01 | 3.1E + 01 | 4.6E + 00 | 2.4E + 01 | 4.3E + 01 | 1.0E + 02 | 1.5E + 01 | 7.6E + 01 |
75 | 1.5E + 01 | 3.6E + 01 | 5.4E + 00 | 2.7E + 01 | 5.0E + 01 | 1.2E + 02 | 1.8E + 01 | 9.0E + 01 |
80 | 1.7E + 01 | 4.0E + 01 | 6.0E + 00 | 3.0E + 01 | 6.0E + 01 | 1.4E + 02 | 2.2E + 01 | 1.1E + 02 |
85 | 1.9E + 01 | 4.6E + 01 | 6.8E + 00 | 3.4E + 01 | 7.2E + 01 | 1.7E + 02 | 2.6E + 01 | 1.3E + 02 |
90 | 2.2E + 01 | 5.0E + 01 | 7.8E + 00 | 3.9E + 01 | 8.6E + 01 | 2.0E + 02 | 3.0E + 01 | 1.5E + 02 |
95 | 2.5E + 01 | 5.8E + 01 | 9.0E + 00 | 4.4E + 01 | 1.0E + 02 | 2.4E + 02 | 3.6E + 01 | 1.8E + 02 |
100 | 2.8E + 01 | 6.8E + 01 | 1.0E + 01 | 5.0E + 01 | 1.2E + 02 | 2.9E + 02 | 4.3E + 01 | 2.2E + 02 |
105 | 3.2E + 01 | 7.6E + 01 | 1.1E + 01 | 5.6E + 01 | 1.4E + 02 | 3.4E + 02 | 5.0E + 01 | 2.6E + 02 |
110 | 3.6E + 01 | 8.6E + 01 | 1.3E + 01 | 6.4E + 01 | 1.7E + 02 | 4.0E + 02 | 6.0E + 01 | 3.0E + 02 |
115 | 4.0E + 01 | 9.6E + 01 | 1.5E + 01 | 7.2E + 01 | 2.0E + 02 | 4.8E + 02 | 7.2E + 01 | 3.6E + 02 |
120 | 4.6E + 01 | 1.1E + 02 | 1.7E + 01 | 8.2E + 01 | 2.4E + 02 | 5.8E + 02 | 8.6E + 01 | 4.3E + 02 |
Table I-E.-Tier I and Tier II Feed Rate and Emissions Screening Limits for Carcinogenic Metals for Facilities in Complex Terrain
Values for use in urban and rural areas | ||||
Terrain adjusted eff. stack ht. (m) | Arsenic (g/hr) | Cadmium (g/hr) | Chromium (g/hr) | Beryllium (g/hr) |
4 | 1.1E-01 | 2.6E-01 | 4.0E-02 | 2.0E-01 |
6 | 1.6E-01 | 3.9E-01 | 5.8E-02 | 2.9E-01 |
8 | 2.4E-01 | 5.8E-01 | 8.6E-02 | 4.3E-01 |
10 | 3.5E-01 | 8.2E-01 | 1.3E-01 | 6.2E-01 |
12 | 4.3E-01 | 1.0E + 00 | 1.5E-01 | 7.6E-01 |
14 | 5.0E-01 | 1.3E + 00 | 1.9E-01 | 9.4E-01 |
16 | 6.0E-01 | 1.4E + 00 | 2.2E-01 | 1.1E + 00 |
18 | 6.8E-01 | 1.6E + 00 | 2.4E-01 | 1.2E + 00 |
20 | 7.6E-01 | 1.8E + 00 | 2.7E-01 | 1.3E + 00 |
22 | 8.2E-01 | 1.9E + 00 | 3.0E-01 | 1.5E + 00 |
24 | 9.0E-01 | 2.1E + 00 | 3.3E-01 | 1.6E + 00 |
26 | 1.0E + 00 | 2.4E + 00 | 3.6E-01 | 1.8E + 00 |
28 | 1.1E + 00 | 2.7E + 00 | 4.0E-01 | 2.0E + 00 |
30 | 1.2E + 00 | 3.0E + 00 | 4.4E-01 | 2.2E + 00 |
35 | 1.5E + 00 | 3.7E + 00 | 5.4E-01 | 2.7E + 00 |
40 | 1.9E + 00 | 4.6E + 00 | 6.8E-01 | 3.4E + 00 |
45 | 2.4E + 00 | 5.4E + 00 | 8.4E-01 | 4.2E + 00 |
50 | 2.9E + 00 | 6.8E + 00 | 1.0E + 00 | 5.0E + 00 |
55 | 3.5E + 00 | 8.4E + 00 | 1.3E + 00 | 6.4E + 00 |
60 | 4.3E + 00 | 1.0E + 01 | 1.5E + 00 | 7.8E + 00 |
65 | 5.4E + 00 | 1.3E + 01 | 1.9E + 00 | 9.6E + 00 |
70 | 6.0E + 00 | 1.4E + 01 | 2.2E + 00 | 1.1E + 01 |
75 | 6.8E + 00 | 1.6E + 01 | 2.4E + 00 | 1.2E + 01 |
80 | 7.6E + 00 | 1.8E + 01 | 2.7E + 00 | 1.3E + 01 |
85 | 8.2E + 00 | 2.0E + 01 | 3.0E + 00 | 1.5E + 01 |
90 | 9.4E + 00 | 2.3E + 01 | 3.4E + 00 | 1.7E + 01 |
95 | 1.0E + 01 | 2.5E + 01 | 4.0E + 00 | 1.9E + 01 |
100 | 1.2E + 01 | 2.8E + 01 | 4.3E + 00 | 2.1E + 01 |
105 | 1.3E + 01 | 3.2E + 01 | 4.8E + 00 | 2.4E + 01 |
110 | 1.5E + 01 | 3.5E + 01 | 5.4E + 00 | 2.7E + 01 |
115 | 1.7E + 01 | 4.0E + 01 | 6.0E + 00 | 3.0E + 01 |
120 | 1.9E + 01 | 4.4E + 01 | 6.4E + 00 | 3.3E + 01 |
Appendix II-Tier I Feed Rate Screening Limits for Total Chlorine
Terrain-adjusted effective stack height (m) | Noncomplex Terrain | Complex Terrain | |
Urban (g/hr) | Rural (g/hr) | (g/hr) | |
4 | 8.2E + 01 | 4.2E + 01 | 1.9E + 01 |
6 | 9.1E + 01 | 4.8E + 01 | 2.8E + 01 |
8 | 1.0E + 02 | 5.3E + 01 | 4.1E + 01 |
10 | 1.2E + 02 | 6.2E + 01 | 5.8E + 01 |
12 | 1.3E + 02 | 7.7E + 01 | 7.2E + 01 |
14 | 1.5E + 02 | 9.1E + 01 | 9.1E + 01 |
16 | 1.7E + 02 | 1.2E + 02 | 1.1E + 02 |
18 | 1.9E + 02 | 1.4E + 02 | 1.2E + 02 |
20 | 2.1E + 02 | 1.8E + 02 | 1.3E + 02 |
22 | 2.4E + 02 | 2.3E + 02 | 1.4E + 02 |
24 | 2.7E + 02 | 2.9E + 02 | 1.6E + 02 |
26 | 3.1E + 02 | 3.7E + 02 | 1.7E + 02 |
28 | 3.5E + 02 | 4.7E + 02 | 1.9E + 02 |
30 | 3.9E + 02 | 5.8E + 02 | 2.1E + 02 |
35 | 5.3E + 02 | 9.6E + 02 | 2.6E + 02 |
40 | 6.2E + 02 | 1.4E + 03 | 3.3E + 02 |
45 | 8.2E + 02 | 2.0E + 03 | 4.0E + 02 |
50 | 1.1E + 03 | 2.6E + 03 | 4.8E + 02 |
55 | 1.3E + 03 | 3.5E + 03 | 6.2E + 02 |
60 | 1.6E + 03 | 4.6E + 03 | 7.7E + 02 |
65 | 2.0E + 03 | 6.2E + 03 | 9.1E + 02 |
70 | 2.3E + 03 | 7.2E + 03 | 1.1E + 03 |
75 | 2.5E + 03 | 8.6E + 03 | 1.2E + 03 |
80 | 2.9E + 03 | 1.0E + 04 | 1.3E + 03 |
85 | 3.3E + 03 | 1.2E + 04 | 1.4E + 03 |
90 | 3.7E + 03 | 1.4E + 04 | 1.6E + 03 |
95 | 4.2E + 03 | 1.7E + 04 | 1.8E + 03 |
100 | 4.8E + 03 | 2.1E + 04 | 2.0E + 03 |
105 | 5.3E + 03 | 2.4E + 04 | 2.3E + 03 |
110 | 6.2E + 03 | 2.9E + 04 | 2.5E + 03 |
115 | 7.2E + 03 | 3.5E + 04 | 2.8E + 03 |
120 | 8.2E + 03 | 4.1E + 04 | 3.2E + 03 |
Appendix III-Tier II Emission Rate Screening Limits for Free Chlorine and Hydrogen Chloride
Terrain-adjusted effective stack height (m) | Noncomplex terrain | Complex terrain | ||||
Values for urban areas | Values for rural areas | Values for use in urban and rural areas | ||||
Cl2 (g/hr) | HCl (g/hr) | Cl2 (g/hr) | HCl (g/hr) | Cl2 (g/hr) | HCl (g/hr) | |
4 | 8.2E + 01 | 1.4E + 03 | 4.2E + 01 | 7.3E + 02 | 1.9E + 01 | 3.3E + 02 |
6 | 9.1E + 01 | 1.6E + 03 | 4.8E + 01 | 8.3E + 02 | 2.8E + 01 | 4.9E + 02 |
8 | 1.0E + 02 | 1.8E + 03 | 5.3E + 01 | 9.2E + 02 | 4.1E + 01 | 7.1E + 02 |
10 | 1.2E + 02 | 2.0E + 03 | 6.2E + 01 | 1.1E + 03 | 5.8E + 01 | 1.0E + 03 |
12 | 1.3E + 02 | 2.3E + 03 | 7.7E + 01 | 1.3E + 03 | 7.2E + 01 | 1.3E + 03 |
14 | 1.5E + 02 | 2.6E + 03 | 9.1E + 01 | 1.6E + 03 | 9.1E + 01 | 1.6E + 03 |
16 | 1.7E + 02 | 2.9E + 03 | 1.2E + 02 | 2.0E + 03 | 1.1E + 02 | 1.8E + 03 |
18 | 1.9E + 02 | 3.3E + 03 | 1.4E + 02 | 2.5E + 03 | 1.2E + 02 | 2.0E + 03 |
20 | 2.1E + 02 | 3.7E + 03 | 1.8E + 02 | 3.1E + 03 | 1.3E + 02 | 2.3E + 03 |
22 | 2.4E + 02 | 4.2E + 03 | 2.3E + 02 | 3.9E + 03 | 1.4E + 02 | 2.4E + 03 |
24 | 2.7E + 02 | 4.8E + 03 | 2.9E + 02 | 5.0E + 03 | 1.6E + 02 | 2.8E + 03 |
26 | 3.1E + 02 | 5.4E + 03 | 3.7E + 02 | 6.5E + 03 | 1.7E + 02 | 3.0E + 03 |
28 | 3.5E + 02 | 6.0E + 03 | 4.7E + 02 | 8.1E + 03 | 1.9E + 02 | 3.4E + 03 |
30 | 3.9E + 02 | 6.9E + 03 | 5.8E + 02 | 1.0E + 04 | 2.1E + 02 | 3.7E + 03 |
35 | 5.3E + 02 | 9.2E + 03 | 9.6E + 02 | 1.7E + 04 | 2.6E + 02 | 4.6E + 03 |
40 | 6.2E + 02 | 1.1E + 04 | 1.4E + 03 | 2.5E + 04 | 3.3E + 02 | 5.7E + 03 |
45 | 8.2E + 02 | 1.4E + 04 | 2.0E + 03 | 3.5E + 04 | 4.0E + 02 | 7.0E + 03 |
50 | 1.1E + 03 | 1.8E + 04 | 2.6E + 03 | 4.6E + 04 | 4.8E + 02 | 8.4E + 03 |
55 | 1.3E + 03 | 2.3E + 04 | 3.5E + 03 | 6.1E + 04 | 6.2E + 02 | 1.1E + 04 |
60 | 1.6E + 03 | 2.9E + 04 | 4.6E + 03 | 8.1E + 04 | 7.7E + 02 | 1.3E + 04 |
65 | 2.0E + 03 | 3.4E + 04 | 6.2E + 03 | 1.1E + 05 | 9.1E + 02 | 1.6E + 04 |
70 | 2.3E + 03 | 3.9E + 04 | 7.2E + 03 | 1.3E + 05 | 1.1E + 03 | 1.8E + 04 |
75 | 2.5E + 03 | 4.5E + 04 | 8.6E + 03 | 1.5E + 05 | 1.2E + 03 | 2.0E + 04 |
80 | 2.9E + 03 | 5.0E + 04 | 1.0E + 04 | 1.8E + 05 | 1.3E + 03 | 2.3E + 04 |
85 | 3.3E + 03 | 5.8E + 04 | 1.2E + 04 | 2.2E + 05 | 1.4E + 03 | 2.5E + 04 |
90 | 3.7E + 03 | 6.6E + 04 | 1.4E + 04 | 2.5E + 05 | 1.6E + 03 | 2.9E + 04 |
95 | 4.2E + 03 | 7.4E + 04 | 1.7E + 04 | 3.0E + 05 | 1.8E + 03 | 3.2E + 04 |
100 | 4.8E + 03 | 8.4E + 04 | 2.1E + 04 | 3.6E + 05 | 2.0E + 03 | 3.5E + 04 |
105 | 5.3E + 03 | 9.2E + 04 | 2.4E + 04 | 4.3E + 05 | 2.3E + 03 | 3.9E + 04 |
110 | 6.2E + 03 | 1.1E + 05 | 2.9E + 04 | 5.1E + 05 | 2.5E + 03 | 4.5E + 04 |
115 | 7.2E + 03 | 1.3E + 05 | 3.5E + 04 | 6.1E + 05 | 2.8E + 03 | 5.0E + 04 |
120 | 8.2E + 03 | 1.4E + 05 | 4.1E + 04 | 7.2E + 05 | 3.2E + 03 | 5.6E + 04 |
Appendix IV-Reference Air Concentrations*
Constituent | CAS No. | RAC (ug/m3) |
Acetaldehyde | 75-07-0 | 10 |
Acetonitrile | 75-05-8 | 10 |
Acetophenone | 98-86-2 | 100 |
Acrolein | 107-02-8 | 20 |
Aldicarb | 116-06-3 | 1 |
Aluminum Phosphide | 20859-73-8 | 0.3 |
Allyl Alcohol | 107-18-6 | 5 |
Antimony | 7440-36-0 | 0.3 |
Barium | 7440-39-3 | 50 |
Barium Cyanide | 542-62-1 | 50 |
Bromomethane | 74-83-9 | 0.8 |
Calcium Cyanide | 592-01-8 | 30 |
Carbon Disulfide | 75-15-0 | 200 |
Chloral | 75-87-6 | 2 |
Chlorine (free) | 0.4 | |
2-Chloro-1,3-butadiene | 126-99-8 | 3 |
Chromium III | 16065-83-1 | 1000 |
Copper Cyanide | 544-92-3 | 5 |
Cresols | 1319-77-3 | 50 |
Cumene | 98-82-8 | 1 |
Cyanide (free) | 57-12-15 | 20 |
Cyanogen | 460-19-5 | 30 |
Cyanogen Bromide | 506-68-3 | 80 |
Di-n-butyl Phthalate | 84-74-2 | 100 |
o-Dichlorobenzene | 95-50-1 | 10 |
p-Dichlorobenzene | 106-46-7 | 10 |
Dichlorodifluoromethane | 75-71-8 | 200 |
2,4-Dichlorophenol | 120-83-2 | 3 |
Diethyl Phthalate | 84-66-2 | 800 |
Dimethoate | 60-51-5 | 0.8 |
2,4-Dinitrophenol | 51-28-5 | 2 |
Dinoseb | 88-85-7 | 0.9 |
Diphenylamine | 122-39-4 | 20 |
Endosulfan | 115-29-1 | 0.05 |
Endrin | 72-20-8 | 0.3 |
Fluorine | 7782-41-4 | 50 |
Formic Acid | 64-18-6 | 2000 |
Glycidyaldehyde | 765-34-4 | 0.3 |
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene | 77-47-4 | 5 |
Hexachlorophene | 70-30-4 | 0.3 |
Hydrocyanic Acid | 74-90-8 | 20 |
Hydrogen Chloride | 7647-01-1 | 7 |
Hydrogen Sulfide | 7783-06-4 | 3 |
Isobutyl Alcohol | 78-83-1 | 300 |
Lead | 7439-92-1 | 0.09 |
Maleic Anhydride | 108-31-6 | 100 |
Mercury | 7439-97-6 | 0.3 |
Methacrylonitrile | 126-98-7 | 0.1 |
Methomyl | 16752-77-5 | 20 |
Methoxychlor | 72-43-5 | 50 |
Methyl Chlorocarbonate | 79-22-1 | 1000 |
Methyl Ethyl Ketone | 78-93-3 | 80 |
Methyl Parathion | 298-00-0 | 0.3 |
Nickel Cyanide | 557-19-7 | 20 |
Nitric Oxide | 10102-43-9 | 100 |
Nitrobenzene | 98-95-3 | 0.8 |
Pentachlorobenzene | 608-93-5 | 0.8 |
Pentachlorophenol | 87-86-5 | 30 |
Phenol | 108-95-2 | 30 |
M-Phenylenediamine | 108-45-2 | 5 |
Phenylmercuric Acetate | 62-38-4 | 0.075 |
Phosphine | 7803-51-2 | 0.3 |
Phthalic Anhydride | 85-44-9 | 2000 |
Potassium Cyanide | 151-50-8 | 50 |
Potassium Silver Cyanide | 506-61-6 | 200 |
Pyridine | 110-86-1 | 1 |
Selenious Acid | 7783-60-8 | 3 |
Selenourea | 630-10-4 | 5 |
Silver | 7440-22-4 | 3 |
Silver Cyanide | 506-64-9 | 100 |
Sodium Cyanide | 143-33-9 | 30 |
Strychnine | 57-24-9 | 0.3 |
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene | 95-94-3 | 0.3 |
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol | 58-90-2 | 30 |
Tetraethyl Lead | 78-00-2 | 0.0001 |
Tetrahydrofuran | 109-99-9 | 10 |
Thallic Oxide | 1314-32-5 | 0.3 |
Thallium | 7440-28-0 | 0.5 |
Thallium (I) Acetate | 563-68-8 | 0.5 |
Thallium (I) Carbonate | 6533-73-9 | 0.3 |
Thallium (I) Chloride | 7791-12-0 | 0.3 |
Thallium (I) Nitrate | 10102-45-1 | 0.5 |
Thallium Selenite | 12039-52-0 | 0.5 |
Thallium (I) Sulfate | 7446-18-6 | 0.075 |
Thiram | 137-26-8 | 5 |
Toluene | 108-88-3 | 300 |
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene | 120-82-1 | 20 |
Trichloromonofluoromethane | 75-69-4 | 300 |
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol | 95-95-4 | 100 |
Vanadium Pentoxide | 1314-62-1 | 20 |
Warfarin | 81-81-2 | 0.3 |
Xylenes | 1330-20-7 | 80 |
Zinc Cyanide | 557-21-1 | 50 |
Zinc Phosphide | 1314-84-7 | 0.3 |
FOOTNOTE: *The RAC for other appendix VIII Section 261constituents not listed herein or in appendix V of this part is 0.1 ug/m3.
Appendix V-Risk Specific Doses (10 -5)
Constituent | CAS No. | Unit risk (m3/µg) | RsD (µg/m 3) |
Acrylamide | 79-06-1 | 1.3E-03 | 7.7E-03 |
Acrylonitrile | 107-13-1 | 6.8E-05 | 1.5E-01 |
Aldrin | 309-00-2 | 4.9E-03 | 2.0E-03 |
Aniline | 62-53-3 | 7.4E-06 | 1.4E + 00 |
Arsenic | 7440-38-2 | 4.3E-03 | 2.3E-03 |
Benz(a)anthracene | 56-55-3 | 8.9E-04 | 1.1E-02 |
Benzene | 71-43-2 | 8.3E-06 | 1.2E + 00 |
Benzidine | 92-87-5 | 6.7E-02 | 1.5E-04 |
Benzo(a)pyrene | 50-32-8 | 3.3E-03 | 3.0E-03 |
Beryllium | 7440-41-7 | 2.4E-03 | 4.2E-03 |
Bis(2-chloroethyl)ether | 111-44-4 | 3.3E-04 | 3.0E-02 |
Bis(chloromethyl)ether | 542-88-1 | 6.2E-02 | 1.6E-04 |
Bis(2-ethylhexyl)-phthalate | 117-81-7 | 2.4E-07 | 4.2E + 01 |
1,3-Butadiene | 106-99-0 | 2.8E-04 | 3.6E-02 |
Cadmium | 7440-43-9 | 1.8E-03 | 5.6E-03 |
Carbon Tetrachloride | 56-23-5 | 1.5E-05 | 6.7E-01 |
Chlordane | 57-74-9 | 3.7E-04 | 2.7E-02 |
Chloroform | 67-66-3 | 2.3E-05 | 4.3E-01 |
Chloromethane | 74-87-3 | 3.6E-06 | 2.8E + 00 |
Chromium VI | 7440-47-3 | 1.2E-02 | 8.3E-04 |
DDT | 50-29-3 | 9.7E-05 | 1.0E-01 |
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene | 53-70-3 | 1.4E-02 | 7.1E-04 |
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane | 96-12-8 | 6.3E-03 | 1.6E-03 |
1,2-Dibromoethane | 106-93-4 | 2.2E-04 | 4.5E-02 |
1,1-Dichloroethane | 75-34-3 | 2.6E-05 | 3.8E-01 |
1,2-Dichloroethane | 107-06-2 | 2.6E-05 | 3.8E-01 |
1,1-Dichloroethylene | 75-35-4 | 5.0E-05 | 2.0E-01 |
1,3-Dichloropropene | 542-75-6 | 3.5E-01 | 2.9E-05 |
Dieldrin | 60-57-1 | 4.6E-03 | 2.2E-03 |
Diethylstilbestrol | 56-53-1 | 1.4E-01 | 7.1E-05 |
Dimethylnitrosamine | 62-75-9 | 1.4E-02 | 7.1E-04 |
2,4-Dinitrotoluene | 121-14-2 | 8.8E-05 | 1.1E-01 |
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine | 122-66-7 | 2.2E-04 | 4.5E-02 |
1,4-Dioxane | 123-91-1 | 1.4E-06 | 7.1E + 00 |
Epichlorohydrin | 106-89-8 | 1.2E-06 | 8.3E + 00 |
Ethylene Oxide | 75-21-8 | 1.0E-04 | 1.0E-01 |
Ethylene Dibromide | 106-93-4 | 2.2E-04 | 4.5E-02 |
Formaldehyde | 50-00-0 | 1.3E-05 | 7.7E-01 |
Heptachlor | 76-44-8 | 1.3E-03 | 7.7E-03 |
Heptachlor Epoxide | 1024-57-3 | 2.6E-03 | 3.8E-03 |
Hexachlorobenzene | 118-74-1 | 4.9E-04 | 2.0E-02 |
Hexachlorobutadiene | 87-68-3 | 2.0E-05 | 5.0E-01 |
Alpha-hexachloro-cyclohexane | 319-84-6 | 1.8E-03 | 5.6E-03 |
Beta-hexachloro-cyclohexane | 319-85-7 | 5.3E-04 | 1.9E-02 |
Gamma-hexachloro-cyclohexane | 58-89-9 | 3.8E-04 | 2.6E-02 |
Hexachlorocyclo-hexane, Technical | 5.1E-04 | 2.0E-02 | |
Hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin(1,2 Mixture) | 1.3E + 0 | 7.7E-06 | |
Hexachloroethane | 67-72-1 | 4.0E-06 | 2.5E + 00 |
Hydrazine | 302-01-2 | 2.9E-03 | 3.4E-03 |
Hydrazine Sulfate | 302-01-2 | 2.9E-03 | 3.4E-03 |
3-Methylcholanthrene | 56-49-5 | 2.7E-03 | 3.7E-03 |
Methyl Hydrazine | 60-34-4 | 3.1E-04 | 3.2E-02 |
Methylene Chloride | 75-09-2 | 4.1E-06 | 2.4E + 00 |
4,4'-Methylene-bis-2-chloroaniline | 101-14-4 | 4.7E-05 | 2.1E-01 |
Nickel | 7440-02-0 | 2.4E-04 | 4.2E-02 |
Nickel Refinery Dust | 7440-02-0 | 2.4E-04 | 4.2E-02 |
Nickel Subsulfide | 12035-72-2 | 4.8E-04 | 2.1E-02 |
2-Nitropropane | 79-46-9 | 2.7E-02 | 3.7E-04 |
N-Nitroso-n-butylamine | 924-16-3 | 1.6E-03 | 6.3E-03 |
N-Nitroso-n-methylurea | 684-93-5 | 8.6E-02 | 1.2E-04 |
N-Nitrosodiethylamine | 55-18-5 | 4.3E-02 | 2.3E-04 |
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine | 930-55-2 | 6.1E-04 | 1.6E-02 |
Pentachloronitrobenzene | 82-68-8 | 7.3E-05 | 1.4E-01 |
PCBs | 1336-36-3 | 1.2E-03 | 8.3E-03 |
Pronamide | 23950-58-5 | 4.6E-06 | 2.2E + 00 |
Reserpine | 50-55-5 | 3.0E-03 | 3.3E-03 |
2,3,7,8-Tetrachloro-dibenzo-p-dioxin | 1746-01-6 | 4.5E + 01 | 2.2E-07 |
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane | 79-34-5 | 5.8E-05 | 1.7E-01 |
Tetrachloroethylene | 127-18-4 | 4.8E-07 | 2.1E + 01 |
Thiourea | 62-56-6 | 5.5E-04 | 1.8E-02 |
1,1,2-Trichloroethane | 79-00-5 | 1.6E-05 | 6.3E-01 |
Trichloroethylene | 79-01-6 | 1.3E-06 | 7.7E + 00 |
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol | 88-06-2 | 5.7E-06 | 1.8E + 00 |
Toxaphene | 8001-35-2 | 3.2E-04 | 3.1E-02 |
Vinyl Chloride | 75-01-4 | 7.1E-06 | 1.4E + 00 |
Appendix VI-Stack Plume Rise
[Estimated Plume Rise (in Meters) Based on Stack Exit Flow Rate and Gas Temperature]
Flow rate (m3/s) | Exhaust Temperature (K°) | ||||||||||
<325 | 325-349 | 350-399 | 400-449 | 450-499 | 500-599 | 600-699 | 700-799 | 800-999 | 1000-1499 | >1499 | |
<0.5 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 |
0.5-0.9 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 1 | 1 | 1 |
1.0-1.9 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 1 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 3 | 3 | 4 |
2.0-2.9 | 0 | 0 | 1 | 3 | 4 | 4 | 6 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 |
3.0-3.9 | 0 | 1 | 2 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 9 | 10 | 11 | 12 | 13 |
4.0-4.9 | 1 | 2 | 4 | 6 | 8 | 10 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 17 |
5.0-7.4 | 2 | 3 | 5 | 8 | 10 | 12 | 14 | 16 | 17 | 19 | 21 |
7.5-9.9 | 3 | 5 | 8 | 12 | 15 | 17 | 20 | 22 | 22 | 23 | 24 |
10.0-12.4 | 4 | 6 | 10 | 15 | 19 | 21 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 |
12.5-14.9 | 4 | 7 | 12 | 18 | 22 | 23 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 |
15.0-19.9 | 5 | 8 | 13 | 20 | 23 | 24 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 31 |
20.0-24.9 | 6 | 10 | 17 | 23 | 25 | 27 | 29 | 30 | 31 | 32 | 34 |
25.0-29.9 | 7 | 12 | 20 | 25 | 27 | 29 | 31 | 32 | 33 | 35 | 36 |
30.0-34.9 | 8 | 14 | 22 | 26 | 29 | 31 | 33 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 39 |
35.0-39.9 | 9 | 16 | 23 | 28 | 30 | 32 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 39 | 41 |
40.0-49.9 | 10 | 17 | 24 | 29 | 32 | 34 | 36 | 38 | 39 | 41 | 42 |
50.0-59.9 | 12 | 21 | 26 | 31 | 34 | 36 | 39 | 41 | 42 | 44 | 46 |
60.0-69.9 | 14 | 22 | 27 | 33 | 36 | 39 | 42 | 43 | 45 | 47 | 49 |
70.0-79.9 | 16 | 23 | 29 | 35 | 38 | 41 | 44 | 46 | 47 | 49 | 51 |
80.0-89.9 | 17 | 25 | 30 | 36 | 40 | 42 | 46 | 48 | 49 | 51 | 54 |
90.0-99.9 | 19 | 26 | 31 | 38 | 42 | 44 | 48 | 50 | 51 | 53 | 56 |
100.0-119.9 | 21 | 26 | 32 | 39 | 43 | 46 | 49 | 52 | 53 | 55 | 58 |
120.0-139.9 | 22 | 28 | 35 | 42 | 46 | 49 | 52 | 55 | 56 | 59 | 61 |
140.0-159.9 | 23 | 30 | 36 | 44 | 48 | 51 | 55 | 58 | 59 | 62 | 65 |
160.0-179.9 | 25 | 31 | 38 | 46 | 50 | 54 | 58 | 60 | 62 | 65 | 67 |
180.0-199.9 | 26 | 32 | 40 | 48 | 52 | 56 | 60 | 63 | 65 | 67 | 70 |
>199.9 | 26 | 33 | 41 | 49 | 54 | 58 | 62 | 65 | 67 | 69 | 73 |
Appendix VII-Health-Based Limits for Exclusion of Waste-Derived Residues* Metals-TCLP Extract Concentration Limits
Constituent | CAS No. | Concentration limits (mg/L) |
Antimony | 7440-36-0 | 1xE + 00 |
Arsenic | 7440-38-2 | 5xE + 00 |
Barium | 7440-39-3 | 1xE + 02 |
Beryllium | 7440-41-7 | 7xE-03 |
Cadmium | 7440-43-9 | 1xE + 00 |
Chromium | 7440-47-3 | 5xE + 00 |
Lead | 7439-92-1 | 5xE + 00 |
Mercury | 7439-97-6 | 2xE-01 |
Nickel | 7440-02-0 | 7xE + 01 |
Selenium | 7782-49-2 | 1xE + 00 |
Silver | 7440-22-4 | 5xE + 00 |
Thallium | 7440-28-0 | 7xE + 00 |
Nonmetals-Residue Concentration Limits
Constituent | CAS No. | Concentration limits for residues (mg/kg) |
Acetonitrile | 75-05-8 | 2xE-01 |
Acetophenone | 98-86-2 | 4xE + 00 |
Acrolein | 107-02-8 | 5xE-01 |
Acrylamide | 79-06-1 | 2xE-04 |
Acrylonitrile | 107-13-1 | 7xE-04 |
Aldrin | 309-00-2 | 2xE-05 |
Allyl alcohol | 107-18-6 | 2xE-01 |
Aluminum phosphide | 20859-73-8 | 1xE-02 |
Aniline | 62-53-3 | 6xE-02 |
Barium cyanide | 542-62-1 | 1xE + 00 |
Benz(a)anthracene | 56-55-3 | 1xE-04 |
Benzene | 71-43-2 | 5xE-03 |
Benzidine | 92-87-5 | 1xE-06 |
Bis(2-chloroethyl) ether | 111-44-4 | 3xE-04 |
Bis(chloromethyl) ether | 542-88-1 | 2xE-06 |
Bis(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate | 117-81-7 | 3xE + 01 |
Bromoform | 75-25-2 | 7xE-01 |
Calcium cyanide | 592-01-8 | 1xE-06 |
Carbon disulfide | 75-15-0 | 4xE + 00 |
Carbon tetrachloride | 56-23-5 | 5xE-03 |
Chlordane | 57-74-9 | 3xE-04 |
Chlorobenzene | 108-90-7 | 1xE + 00 |
Chloroform | 67-66-3 | 6xE-02 |
Copper cyanide | 544-92-3 | 2xE-01 |
Cresols (Cresylic acid) | 1319-77-3 | 2xE + 00 |
Cyanogen | 460-19-5 | 1xE + 00 |
DDT | 50-29-3 | 1xE-03 |
Dibenz(a, h)-anthracene | 53-70-3 | 7xE-06 |
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane | 96-12-8 | 2xE-05 |
p-Dichlorobenzene | 106-46-7 | 7.5xE-02 |
Dichlorodifluoromethane | 75-71-8 | 7xE + 00 |
1,1-Dichloroethylene | 75-35-4 | 5xE-03 |
2,4-Dichlorophenol | 120-83-2 | 1xE-01 |
1,3-Dichloropropene | 542-75-6 | 1xE-03 |
Dieldrin | 60-57-1 | 2xE-05 |
Diethyl phthalate | 84-66-2 | 3xE + 01 |
Diethylstilbesterol | 56-53-1 | 7xE-07 |
Dimethoate | 60-51-5 | 3xE-02 |
2,4-Dinitrotoluene | 121-14-2 | 5xE-04 |
Diphenylamine | 122-39-4 | 9xE-01 |
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine | 122-66-7 | 5xE-04 |
Endosulfan | 115-29-7 | 2xE-03 |
Endrin | 72-20-8 | 2xE-04 |
Epichlorohydrin | 106-89-8 | 4xE-02 |
Ethylene dibromide | 106-93-4 | 4xE-07 |
Ethylene oxide | 75-21-8 | 3xE-04 |
Fluorine | 7782-41-4 | 4xE + 00 |
Formic acid | 64-18-6 | 7xE + 01 |
Heptachlor | 76-44-8 | 8xE-05 |
Heptachlor epoxide | 1024-57-3 | 4xE-05 |
Hexachlorobenzene | 118-74-1 | 2xE-04 |
Hexachlorobutadiene | 87-68-3 | 5xE-03 |
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene | 77-47-4 | 2xE-01 |
Hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins | 19408-74-3 | 6xE-08 |
Hexachloroethane | 67-72-1 | 3xE-02 |
Hydrazine | 302-01-1 | 1xE-04 |
Hydrogen cyanide | 74-90-8 | 7xE-05 |
Hydrogen sulfide | 7783-06-4 | 1xE-06 |
Isobutyl alcohol | 78-83-1 | 1xE + 01 |
Methomyl | 16752-77-5 | 1xE + 00 |
Methoxychlor | 72-43-5 | 1xE-01 |
3-Methylcholanthrene | 56-49-5 | 4xE-05 |
4,4'-Methylenebis (2-chloroaniline) | 101-14-4 | 2xE-03 |
Methylene chloride | 75-09-2 | 5xE-02 |
Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) | 78-93-3 | 2xE + 00 |
Methyl hydrazine | 60-34-4 | 3xE-04 |
Methyl parathion | 298-00-0 | 2xE-02 |
Naphthalene | 91-20-3 | 1xE + 01 |
Nickel cyanide | 557-19-7 | 7xE-01 |
Nitric oxide | 10102-43-9 | 4xE + 00 |
Nitrobenzene | 98-95-3 | 2xE-02 |
N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine | 924-16-3 | 6xE-05 |
N-Nitrosodiethylamine | 55-18-5 | 2xE-06 |
N-Nitroso-N-methylurea | 684-93-5 | 1xE-07 |
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine | 930-55-2 | 2xE-04 |
Pentachlorobenzene | 608-93-5 | 3xE-02 |
Pentachloronitrobenzene (PCNB) | 82-68-8 | 1xE-01 |
Pentachlorophenol | 87-86-5 | 1xE + 00 |
Phenol | 108-95-2 | 1xE + 00 |
Phenylmercury acetate | 62-38-4 | 3xE-03 |
Phosphine | 7803-51-2 | 1xE-02 |
Polychlorinated biphenyls, N.O.S | 1336-36-3 | 5xE-05 |
Potassium cyanide | 151-50-8 | 2xE + 00 |
Potassium silver cyanide | 506-61-6 | 7xE + 00 |
Pronamide | 23950-58-5 | 3xE + 00 |
Pyridine | 110-86-1 | 4xE-02 |
Reserpine | 50-55-5 | 3xE-05 |
Selenourea | 630-10-4 | 2xE-01 |
Silver cyanide | 506-64-9 | 4xE + 00 |
Sodium cyanide | 143-33-9 | 1xE + 00 |
Strychnine | 57-24-9 | 1xE-02 |
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene | 95-94-3 | 1xE-02 |
1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane | 79-34-5 | 2xE-03 |
Tetrachloroethylene | 127-18-4 | 7xE-01 |
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol | 58-90-2 | 1xE-02 |
Tetraethyl lead | 78-00-2 | 4xE-06 |
Thiourea | 62-56-6 | 2xE-04 |
Toluene | 108-88-3 | 1xE + 01 |
Toxaphene | 8001-35-2 | 5xE-03 |
1,1,2-Trichloroethane | 79-00-5 | 6xE-03 |
Trichloroethylene | 79-01-6 | 5xE-03 |
Trichloromonofluoromethane | 75-69-4 | 1xE + 01 |
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol | 95-95-4 | 4xE + 00 |
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol | 88-06-2 | 4xE + 00 |
Vanadium pentoxide | 1314-62-1 | 7xE-01 |
Vinyl chloride | 75-01-4 | 2xE-03 |
*Note: The health-based concentration limits for Appendix VIII, Section 261 constituents for which a health-based concentration is not provided below is 2xE-06 mg/kg.
Appendix VIII-Potential PICs for Determination of Exclusion of Waste-Derived Residues PICs Found in Stack Effluents
Volatiles | Semivolatiles |
Benzene | Bis(2-ethylhexyl)phthalate |
Toluene | Naphthalene |
Carbon tetrachloride | Phenol |
Chloroform | Diethyl phthalate |
Methylene chloride | Butyl benzyl phthalate |
Trichloroethylene | 2,4-Dimethylphenol |
Tetra chloroethylene | o-Dichlorobenzene |
1,1,1-Trichloroethane | m-Dichlorobenzene |
Chlorobenzene | p-Dichlorobenzene |
cis-1,4-Dichloro-2-butene | Hexachlorobenzene |
Bromochloromethane | 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol |
Bromodichloromethane | Fluoranthene |
Bromoform | o-Nitrophenol |
Bromomethane | 1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene |
Methylene bromide | o-Chlorophenol |
Methyl ethyl ketone | Pentachlorophenol Pyrene Dimethyl phthalate Mononitrobenzene 2,6-Toluene diisocyanate Polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins1 Polychlorinated dibenzo-furans1 |
1 Analyses for polychlorinated dibenzo-pdioxins and polychlorinated dibenzo-furans are required only for residues collected from areas downstream of the combustion chamber ( e.g., ductwork, boiler tubes, heat exchange surfaces, air pollution control devices, etc.).
APPENDIX IX. - METHODS MANUAL FOR COMPLIANCE WITH THE BIF REGULATIONS
This appendix is incorporated by reference from 40 CFR Part 266, Appendix IX. Please refer to this document, or you may obtain a copy of this manual from the DEQ Hazardous Waste Division, (501) 682-0833 or via the BBS service at (501) 682-0563.
APPENDIX X. - GUIDELINE ON AIR QUALITY MODELS
This appendix has been deleted by a revised Federal ruling at 58 FR 38816, July 20, 1993. Please refer to Appendix W of 40 CFR Part 51 (Guideline on Air Quality Models (Revised) (1986)) and its supplements for detailed information regarding air modeling for compliance with the requirements of this Section. A copy of this manual may be obtained from the DEQ Hazardous Waste Division, (501) 682-0833, or via the BBS service at (501) 682-0563.
APPENDIX XI.-LEAD-BEARING MATERIALS THAT MAY BE PROCESSED IN EXEMPT LEAD SMELTERS
Acid dump/fill solids
Sump mud
Materials from laboratory analyses
Acid filters
Baghouse bags
Clothing (e.g., coveralls, aprons, shoes, hats, gloves)
Sweepings
Air filter bags and cartridges
Respiratory cartridge filters
Shop abrasives
Stacking boards
Waste shipping containers (e.g., cartons, bags, drums, cardboard)
Paper hand towels
Wiping rags and sponges
Contaminated pallets
Water treatment sludges, filter cakes, residues, and solids
Emission control dusts, sludges, filter cakes, residues, and solids from lead-associated industries (e.g., K069 and D008 wastes)
Spent grids, posts, and separators
Spent batteries
Lead oxide and lead oxide residues
Lead plates and groups
Spent battery cases, covers, and vents
Pasting belts
Water filter media
Cheesecloth from pasting rollers
Pasting additive bags
Asphalt paving materials
Charging jumpers and clips
Platen abrasive
Fluff from lead wire and cable casings
Lead-based pigments and compounding pigment dust
APPENDIX XII.-NICKEL OR CHROMIUM-BEARING MATERIALS THAT MAY BE PROCESSED IN EXEMPT NICKEL-CHROMIUM RECOVERY FURNACES
Baghouse bags
Raney nickel catalyst
Floor sweepings
Air filters
Electroplating bath filters
Wastewater filter media
Wood pallets
Disposable clothing (coveralls, aprons, hats, gloves)
Laboratory samples and spent chemicals
Shipping containers and plastic liners from containers or vehicles used to transport nickel or chromium-containing wastes
Respirator
Appendix XIII to Section 266 - Mercury Bearing Wastes That May Be Processed in Exempt Mercury Recovery Units
These are exempt mercury-bearing materials with less than 500 ppm of Section 261, appendix VIII organic constituents when generated by manufacturers or users of mercury or mercury products.
If you are a facility owner or operator who has fully complied with the requirements for interim status-as defined in Section 3005(e) of RCRA and Section 270.70 of this rule-you must comply with the rules specified in Section 265 of this Rule instead of the rules in this section, until final administrative disposition of the standardized permit application is made, except as provided under Section 264, subsection S.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, enforcement actions may be brought pursuant to section 7003 of RCRA.
This subsection applies to you if you own or operate a facility that treats or stores hazardous waste under a Section 270, subsection J standardized permit, except as provided in § 267.1(b) of this Rule.
To comply with this subsection, you must obtain an EPA identification number, and follow the requirements below for waste analysis, security, inspections, training, special waste handling, and location standards.
You must apply to the Division for an EPA identification number following the current notification procedures and using forms as provided by the Division. You may obtain these forms by contacting the Division, or from the DEQ web site at http://www.adeq.state.ar.us
Note to paragraph (a)(3): Procedures for demonstrating compliance with this standard are specified in Section 270.14(b)(11) of this Rule. Facilities which are located in political jurisdictions other than those listed in appendix VI to Section 264, are assumed to be in compliance with this requirement.
This subsection applies to you if you own or operate a facility that treats or stores hazardous waste under a Section 270, subsection J standardized permit, except as provided in § 267.1(b).
You must design, construct, maintain, and operate your facility to minimize the possibility of a fire, explosion, or any unplanned sudden or non-sudden release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents to air, soil, or surface water that could threaten human health or the environment.
Your facility must be equipped with all of the following, unless none of the hazards posed by waste handled at the facility could require a particular kind of equipment specified below:
You must test and maintain all required facility communications or alarm systems, fire protection equipment, spill control equipment, and decontamination equipment, as necessary, to assure its proper operation in time of emergency.
You must maintain enough aisle space to allow the unobstructed movement of personnel, fire protection equipment, spill control equipment, and decontamination equipment to any area of facility operation in an emergency, as appropriate, considering the type of waste being stored or treated.
This subsection applies to you if you own or operate a facility that treats or stores hazardous waste under a Section 270, subsection J standardized permit, except as provided in § 267.1(b).
You must review, and immediately amend the contingency plan, if necessary, whenever:
At least one employee must be either on the facility premises or on call at all times (that is, available to respond to an emergency by reaching the facility within a short period of time) who has the responsibility for coordinating all emergency response measures. This emergency coordinator must be thoroughly familiar with all aspects of the facility's contingency plan, all operations and activities at the facility, the location and characteristics of waste handled, the location of all records within the facility, and the facility layout. In addition, this person must have the authority to commit the resources needed to carry out the contingency plan.
This subsection applies to you if you own or operate a facility that stores or non-thermally treats a hazardous waste under a Section 270, subsection J standardized permit, except as provided in § 267.1(b). In addition, you must comply with the manifest requirements of Section 262 of this Rule whenever a shipment of hazardous waste is initiated from your facility.
You must prepare an annual report and other reports listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
Before transferring ownership or operation of a facility during its operating life, you must notify the new owner or operator in writing of the requirements of this section and Section 270, subsection J.
This subsection applies to you if you own or operate a facility that treats or stores hazardous waste under a Section 270, subsection J standardized permit, except as provided in § 267.1(b), or unless your facility already has a permit that imposes requirements for corrective action under Section 264.101 of this Rule.
This subsection applies to you if you own or operate a facility that treats or stores hazardous waste under a Section 270, subsection J standardized permit, except as provided in § 267.1(b).
You must close the storage and treatment units in a manner that:
You must properly dispose of or decontaminate all contaminated equipment, structures, and soils during the partial and final closure periods. By removing any hazardous wastes or hazardous constituents during partial and final closure, you may become a generator of hazardous waste and must handle that waste following all applicable requirements of Section 262 of this Rule.
Within 60 days of the completion of final closure of each unit under a Section 270 subsection J standardized permit, you must submit to the Director, by registered mail, a certification that each hazardous waste management unit or facility, as applicable, has been closed following the specifications in the closure plan. Both you and an independent qualified Arkansas-registered professional engineer must sign the certification. You must furnish documentation supporting the independent Arkansas-registered professional engineer's certification to the Director upon request until he releases you from the financial assurance requirements for closure under § 267.143(i).
"Assets" means all existing and all probable future economic benefits obtained or controlled by a particular entity.
"Current plugging and abandonment cost estimate" means the most recent of the estimates prepared in accordance with 40 CFR 144.62(a), (b), and (c).
"Independently audited" refers to an audit performed by an independent certified public accountant in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards.
"Liabilities" means probable future sacrifices of economic benefits arising from present obligations to transfer assets or provide services to other entities in the future as a result of past transactions or events.
"Tangible net worth" means the tangible assets that remain after deducting liabilities; such assets would not include intangibles such as goodwill and rights to patents or royalties.
"Accidental occurrence" means an accident, including continuous or repeated exposure to conditions, which results in bodily injury or property damage neither expected nor intended from the standpoint of the insured.
"Legal defense costs" means any expenses that an insurer incurs in defending against claims of third parties brought under the terms and conditions of an insurance policy.
"Sudden accidental occurrence" means an occurrence which is not continuous or repeated in nature.
The owner or operator must establish financial assurance for closure of each storage or treatment unit that he owns or operates. In establishing financial assurance for closure, the owner or operator must choose from the financial assurance mechanisms in paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), and (g) of this section. The owner or operator can also use a combination of mechanisms for a single facility if they meet the requirement in paragraph (h) of this section, or may use a single mechanism for multiple facilities as in paragraph (i) of this section. The Director will release the owner or operator from the requirements of this section after the owner or operator meets the criteria under paragraph (j) of this section.
Mathematically, the formula is Next Payment = (Current Closure Estimate - Current Value of the Trust Fund) Divided by Years Remaining in the Pay-In Period.
I am the chief financial officer of [name and address of firm]. This letter is in support of this firm's use of the financial test to demonstrate financial assurance for closure costs, as specified in [insert "subsection H of Rule No. 23 § 267" or the citation to the corresponding state rule]. This firm qualifies for the financial test on the basis of having [insert "a current rating for its senior unsecured debt of AAA, AA, A, or BBB as issued by Standard and Poor's or Aaa, Aa, A or Baa as issued by Moody's" or "a ratio of less than 1.50 comparing total liabilities to net worth" or "a ratio of greater than 0.10 comparing the sum of net income plus depreciation, depletion and amortization, minus $10 million, to total liabilities."]
This firm [insert "is required" or "is not required"] to file a Form 10K with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) for the latest fiscal year.
The fiscal year of this firm ends on [month, day]. The figures for the following items marked with an asterisk are derived from this firm's independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year, ended [date].
[If this firm qualifies on the basis of its bond rating fill in the requested information: "This firm has a rating of its senior unsecured debt of'"[insert the bond rating] "from" [insert "Standard and Poor's" or "Moody's"].
Complete Line 1. Total Liabilities below and then skip the remaining questions in the next section and resume completing the form at the section entitled Obligations Covered by a Financial Test or Corporate Guarantee.]
[If this firm qualifies for the financial test on the basis of its ratio of liabilities to net worth, or sum of income, depreciation, depletion, and amortization to net worth, please complete the following section.]
[If the above figures are taken directly from the most recent audited financial statements for this firm insert ''The above figures are taken directly from the most recent audited financial statements for this firm.'' If they are not, insert ''The following items are not taken directly from the firms most recent audited financial statements'' [insert the numbers of the items and attach an explanation of how they were derived.]
[Complete the following calculations]
Is Line 8. less than 1.5? __Yes ___No
Is Line 9 greater than 0.10? .......................... __Yes ___No
[If you did not answer Yes to either of these two questions, you cannot use the financial test and need not complete this letter. Instead, you must notify the permitting authority for the facility that you intend to establish alternate financial assurance as specified in 40 CFR 267.143. The owner or operator must send this notice by certified mail within 90 days following the close of the owner or operator's fiscal year for which the year-end financial data show that the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements of this section. The owner or operator must also provide alternative financial assurance within 120 days after the end of such fiscal year.]
Obligations Covered by a Financial Test or Corporate Guarantee
[On the following lines list all obligations that are covered by a financial test or a corporate guarantee extended by your firm. You may add additional lines and leave blank entries that do not apply to your situation.]
Hazardous Waste Facility Name and ID State Closure Post-Closure Corrective Action
Hazardous Waste Third Party Liability $
Municipal Waste Facilities State Closure Post-Closure Corrective Action
Underground Injection Control State Plugging Action
Petroleum Underground Storage Tanks
PCB Storage Facility Name and ID State Closure
Any financial assurance required under, or as part of an action undertaken under, the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act. Site name State Amount
_______________ ____ $ _______
Any other environmental obligations that are assured through a financial test.
Name Amount
________ $ _____ l
Is Line 15 greater than Line 11? ___Yes ___No
Is Line 16 no less than Line 10? ___Yes ___No
[You must be able to answer Yes to both these questions to use the financial test for this facility.]
I hereby certify that the wording of this letter is identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR 267.151 as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
[Signature] _______________
[Name] __________________
[Title] ___________________
[Date] ___________________
[After completion, a signed copy of the form must be sent to the permitting authority of the state or territory where the facility is located. In addition, a signed copy must be sent to every authority who (1) requires a demonstration through a financial test for each of the other obligations in the letter that are assured through a financial test, or (2) accepts a guarantee for an obligation listed in this letter.]
I am the chief financial officer of [name and address of firm]. This letter is in support of this firm's use of the financial test to demonstrate financial assurance for third party liability, as specified in [insert ''subsection H of 40 CFR section 267 '' or the citation to the corresponding state rules]. This firm qualifies for the financial test on the basis of having tangible net worth of at least $10 million more than the amount of liability coverage and assets in the United States of at least the amount of liability coverage.
This firm [insert ''is required'' or ''is not required''] to file a Form 10K with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) for the latest fiscal year.
The fiscal year of this firm ends on [month, day]. The figures for the following items marked with an asterisk are derived from this firm's independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year, ended [date].
[Please complete the following section.]
Is Line 5 At least $10 million greater than Line 7? ............ ___Yes ___No
Is Line 6 at least equal to Line 7? .................... ___Yes ___No
[You must be able to answer Yes to both these questions to use the financial test for this facility.]
I hereby certify that the wording of this letter is identical to the wording specified in 40 CFR 267.151 as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
[Signature] __________________
[Name] _____________________
[Title] ______________________
[Date] _______________________
[After completion, a signed copy of the form must be sent to the permitting authority of the state or territory where the facility(ies) is(are) located.]
This subsection applies to you if you own or operate a facility that treats or stores hazardous waste in containers under a 40 CFR section 270 subsection J standardized permit, except as provided in § 267.1(b).
Standards apply to the condition of the containers, to the compatibility of waste with the containers, and to the management of the containers.
At least weekly, you must inspect areas where you store containers, looking for leaking containers and for deterioration of containers and the containment system caused by corrosion or other factors.
You must locate containers holding ignitable or reactive waste at least 15 meters (50 feet) from your facility property line. You must also follow the general requirements for ignitable or reactive wastes that are specified in § 267.17(a).
You must remove all hazardous waste and hazardous waste residues from the containment system. You must decontaminate or remove remaining containers, liners, bases, and soil containing, or contaminated with, hazardous waste or hazardous waste residues.
You must manage all hazardous waste placed in a container according to the requirements of subsections AA, BB, and CC of Section 264 of this rule. Under a standardized permit, the following control devices are permissible: Thermal vapor incinerator, catalytic vapor incinerator, flame, boiler, process heater, condenser, and carbon absorption unit.
Subsection J-Tank Systems
This subsection applies to you if you own or operate a facility that treats or stores hazardous waste in above-ground or on-ground tanks under a Section 270 subsection J standardized permit, except as provided in § 267.1(b).
You must ensure that the foundation, structural support, seams, connections, and pressure controls (if applicable) are adequately designed and that the tank system has sufficient structural strength, compatibility with the waste(s) to be stored or treated, and corrosion protection to ensure that it will not collapse, rupture, or fail. You must obtain a written assessment, reviewed and certified by an independent, qualified Arkansas-registered professional engineer, following § 270.11(d) of this rule, attesting that the tank system has sufficient structural integrity and is acceptable for the storing and treating of hazardous waste. This assessment must include, at a minimum, the following information:
You must test all new tanks and ancillary equipment for tightness before you place them in use. If you find a tank system that is not tight, you must perform all repairs necessary to remedy the leak(s) in the system before you cover, enclose, or place the tank system into use.
To prevent the release of hazardous waste or hazardous constituents to the environment, you must provide secondary containment that meets the requirements of this section for all new and existing tank systems.
You must provide ancillary equipment with secondary containment (for example, trench, jacketing, double walled piping) that meets the requirements of § 267.195 (a) and (b), except for:
You must comply with the following requirements for scheduling, conducting, and documenting inspections.
If there has been a leak or a spill from a tank system or secondary containment system, or if either system is unfit for use, you must remove the system from service immediately, and you must satisfy the following requirements:
When you close a tank system, you must remove or decontaminate all waste residues, contaminated containment system components (liners, etc.), contaminated soils, and structures and equipment contaminated with waste, and manage them as hazardous waste, unless 40 CFR 261.3(d) applies. The closure plan, closure activities, cost estimates for closure, and financial responsibility for tank systems must meet all of the requirements specified in subsections G and H of this section.
You must manage all hazardous waste placed in a tank following the requirements of subsections AA, BB, and CC of Section 264 of this Rule. Under a standardized permit, the following control devices are permissible: Thermal vapor incinerator, catalytic vapor incinerator, flame, boiler, process heater, condenser, and carbon absorption unit.
This subsection applies to you if you own or operate a facility that treats or stores hazardous waste in containment buildings under a Section 270 subsection J standardized permit, except as provided in § 267.1(b). Storage and/or treatment in your containment building is not land disposal as defined in § 268.2 if your unit meets the requirements of §§ 267.1101, 267.1102, and 267.1103.
Your containment building must comply with the design and operating standards in this section. The Division will consider standards established by professional organizations generally recognized by the industry such as the American Concrete Institute (ACI) and the American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM) in judging the structural integrity requirements of this section.
You must use controls and practices to ensure containment of the hazardous waste within the unit, and must, at a minimum:
If your containment building will be used to manage hazardous wastes containing free liquids or treated with free liquids, as determined by the paint filter test, by a visual examination, or by other appropriate means, you must include:
Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection, the Director may waive requirements for secondary containment for a permitted containment building where:
For these containment buildings, you must:
Throughout the active life of the containment building, if you detect a condition that could lead to or has caused a release of hazardous waste, you must repair the condition promptly, in accordance with the following procedures.
§ 267. 1107 Can a containment building itself be considered secondary containment? Containment buildings can serve as secondary containment systems for tanks placed within the building under certain conditions.
Containment buildings can serve as secondary containment systems for tanks placed within the building under certain conditions.
When you close a containment building, you must remove or decontaminate all waste residues, contaminated containment system components (liners, etc.), contaminated subsoils, and structures and equipment contaminated with waste and leachate and manage them as hazardous waste unless 40 CFR 261.3(d) applies. The closure plan, closure activities, cost estimates for closure, and financial responsibility for containment buildings must meet all of the requirements specified in subsections G and H of this section.
When used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given below:
I certify under penalty of law that the requirements of Rule No. 23 § 268.4(a)(3) have been met for all surface impoundments being used to treat restricted wastes. I believe that the submitted information is true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment.
"I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and am familiar with the information submitted in this document and all attachments and that, based on my inquiry of those individuals immediately responsible for obtaining the information, I believe that the information is true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment."
I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and am familiar with the information submitted in this petition and all attached documents, and that, based on my inquiry of those individuals immediately responsible for obtaining the information, I believe that submitted information is true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment.
"I certify under penalty of law that I personally have examined and am familiar with the waste through analysis and testing or through knowledge of the waste to support this certification that the waste complies with the treatment standards specified in 40 CFR Part 268 subpart D. I believe that the information I submitted is true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting a false certification, including the possibility of a fine and imprisonment."
Generator Paperwork Requirements Table
§ 268.7 (a)(2) | § 268.7 (a)(3) | § 268.7(a)(4) | § 268.7 (a)(9) | |
1. EPA Hazardous Waste Numbers and Manifest Number of first shipment | X | X | X | X |
2. Statement: this waste is not prohibited from land disposal | X | |||
3. The waste is subject to the LDRs. The constituents of concern for F001-F005, and F039, and underlying hazardous constituents in characteristic wastes, unless the waste will be treated and monitored for all constituents. If all constituents will be treated and monitored, there is no need to put them all on the LDR notice | X | X | ||
4. The notice must include the applicable wastewater/nonwastewater category (see Sec. Sec. 268.2(d) and (f)) and subdivisions made within a waste code based on waste-specific criteria (such as D003 reactive cyanide) | X | X | ||
5. Waste analysis data (when available) | X | X | X | |
6. Date the waste is subject to the prohibition | X | |||
7. For hazardous debris, when treating with the alternative treatment technologies provided by § 268.45: the contaminants subject to treatment, as described in § 268.45(b); and an indication that these contaminants are being treated to comply with §268.45 | X | X | ||
8. For contaminated soil subject to LDRs as provided in § 268.49(a), the constituents subject to treatment as described in § 268.49(d), and the following statement: This contaminated soil [does/does not] contain listed hazardous waste and [does/does not] exhibit a characteristic of hazardous waste and [is subject to/complies with] the soil treatment standards as provided by § 268.49(c) or the universal treatment standards. | X | X | ||
9. A certification is needed (see applicable section for exact wording). |
"I certify under penalty of law that I personally have examined and am familiar with the waste and that the lab pack contains only wastes that have not been excluded under Appendix IV to 40 CFR section 268 and that this lab pack will be sent to a combustion facility in compliance with the alternative treatment standards for lab packs at 40 CFR 268.42(c). I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting a false certification, including the possibility of fine or imprisonment."
TSDF Paperwork Requirements Table
Required Information | § 268.7(b) |
1. EPA Hazardous Waste & Manifest number of first shipment. | X |
2. The waste is subject to the LDRs. The constituents of concern for F001-F002, and F039, and underlying hazardous constituents (for wastes that are not managed in a Clean Water Act (CWA) or CWA-equivalent facility), unless the waste will be treated and monitored for all constituents. If all constituents will be treated and monitored, there is no need to put them all on the LDR notice. | X |
3. The notice must include the applicable wastewater/ non-wastewater category (see § 268.2(d) and (f)) and subdivisions made within a waste codebased on waste-specific criteria (such as D003 reactive cyanide) | X |
4. Waste analysis data (when available) | X |
5. A certifcation statement is needed (see applicable section for exact wording) | X |
A certification is also necessary for contaminated soil and it must state:
"I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and am familiar with the treatment technology and operation of the treatment process used to support this certification and believe that it has been maintained and operated properly so as to comply with treatment standards specified in 40 CFR 268.49 without impermissible dilution of the prohibited wastes. I am aware there are significant penalties for submitting a false certification, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment."
"I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and am familiar with the treatment technology and operation of the treatment process used to support this certification. Based on my inquiry of those individuals immediately responsible for obtaining this information, I believe that the nonwastewater organic constituents have been treated by combustion units as specified in § 268.42, Table 1. I have been unable to detect the nonwastewater organic constituents, despite having used best good-faith efforts to analyze for such constituents. I am aware there are significant penalties for submitting a false certification, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment."
In the case of any hazardous waste identified or listed under RCRA Section 3001 after November 8, 1984, the Administrator shall make a land disposal prohibition determination within 6 months after the date of identification or listing.
Note: The treatment standards that heretofore appeared in tables in §§ 268.41, 268.42, and 268.43 of this section have been consolidated into the table "Treatment Standards for Hazardous Wastes" in this section.
For the requirements previously found in this section and for treatment standards in Table CCWE-Constituent Concentrations in Waste Extracts, refer to § 268.40.
Note: For the requirements previously found in this section in Table 2-Technology-Based Standards By RCRA Waste Code, and Table 3-Technology-Based Standards for Specific Radioactive Hazardous Mixed Waste, refer to § 268.40.
Table 1
Technology Codes and Description of Technology-Based Standards
Technology Description of technology-based standards Code
ADGAS: Venting of compressed gases into an absorbing or reacting media (ie, solid or liquid)-venting can be accomplished through physical release utilizing valves/piping; physical penetration of the container; and/or penetration through detonation
AMLGM: Amalgamation of liquid, elemental mercury contaminated with radioactive materials utilizing inorganic reagents such as copper, zinc, nickel, gold, and sulfur that result in a nonliquid, semi-solid amalgam and thereby reducing potential emissions of elemental mercury vapors to the air
BIODG: Biodegradation of organics or non-metallic inorganics (ie, degradable inorganics that contain the elements of phosphorus, nitrogen, and sulfur) in units operated under either aerobic or anaerobic conditions such that a surrogate compound or indicator parameter has been substantially reduced in concentration in the residuals (eg, Total Organic Carbon can often be used as an indicator parameter for the biodegradation of many organic constituents that cannot be directly analyzed in wastewater residues)
CARBN: Carbon adsorption (granulated or powdered) of non-metallic inorganics, organo-metallics, and/or organic constituents, operated such that a surrogate compound or indicator parameter has not undergone breakthrough (eg, Total Organic Carbon can often be used as an indicator parameter for the adsorption of many organic constituents that cannot be directly analyzed in wastewater residues) Breakthrough occurs when the carbon has become saturated with the constituent (or indicator parameter) and substantial change in adsorption rate associated with that constituent occurs
CHOXD: Chemical or electrolytic oxidation utilizing the following oxidation reagents (or waste reagents) or combinations of reagents:
CHRED: Chemical reduction utilizing the following reducing reagents (or waste reagents) or combinations of reagents:
CMBST: High temperature organic destruction technologies, such as combustion in incinerators, boilers, or industrial furnaces operated in accordance with the applicable requirements of 40 CFR part 264, subpart O, or Section 265, subsection O, or Section 266, subsection H, and in other units operated in accordance with applicable technical operating requirements; and certain non-combustive technologies, such as the Catalytic Extraction Process
DEACT: Deactivation to remove the hazardous characteristics of a waste due to its ignitability, corrosivity, and/or reactivity
FSUBS: Fuel substitution in units operated in accordance with applicable technical operating requirements
HLVIT: Vitrification of high level mixed radioactive wastes in units in compliance with all applicable radioactive protection requirements under control of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
IMERC: Incineration of wastes containing organics and mercury in units operated in accordance with the technical operating requirements of Section 264 subsection 0 and Section 265 subsection 0 All wastewater and nonwastewater residues derived from this process must then comply with the corresponding treatment standards per waste code with consideration of any applicable subcategories (eg, High or Low Mercury Subcategories)
INCIN: Incineration in units operated in accordance with the technical operating requirements of Section 264 Subsection 0 and Section 265 Subsection 0
LLEXT: Liquid-liquid extraction (often referred to as solvent extraction) of organics from liquid wastes into an immiscible solvent for which the hazardous constituents have a greater solvent affinity, resulting in an extract high in organics that must undergo either incineration, reuse as a fuel, or other recovery/reuse and a raffinate (extracted liquid waste) proportionately low in organics that must undergo further treatment as specified in the standard
MACRO: Macroencapsulation with surface coating materials such as polymeric organics (eg resins and plastics) or with a jacket of inert inorganic materials to substantially reduce surface exposure to potential leaching media Macroencapsulation specifically does not include any material that would be classified as a tank or container according to §260.10
NEUTR: Neutralization with the following reagents (or waste reagents) or combinations of reagents:
NLDBR: No land disposal based on recycling
PRECP: Chemical precipitation of metals and other inorganics as insoluble precipitates of oxides, hydroxides, carbonates, sulfides, sulfates, chlorides, flourides, or phosphates The following reagents (or waste reagents) are typically used alone or in combination:
POLYM: Formation of complex high-molecular weight solids through polymerization of monomers in high-TOC D001 non-wastewaters which are chemical components in the manufacture of plastics
RBERY: Thermal recovery of Beryllium
RCGAS: Recovery/reuse of compressed gases including techniques such as reprocessing of the gases for reuse/resale; filtering/adsorption of impurities; remixing for direct reuse or resale; and use of the gas as a fuel source
RCORR: Recovery of acids or bases utilizing one or more of the following recovery technologies:
RLEAD: Thermal recovery of lead in secondary lead smelters
RMERC: Retorting or roasting in a thermal processing unit capable of volatilizing mercury and subsequently condensing the volatilized mercury for recovery The retorting or roasting unit (or facility) must be subject to one or more of the following:
RMETL: Recovery of metals or inorganics utilizing one or more of the following direct physical/removal technologies:
RORGS: Recovery of organics utilizing one or more of the following technologies:
RTHRM: Thermal recovery of metals or inorganics from nonwastewaters in units identified as industrial furnaces according to 26010 (1), (6), (7), (11), and (12) under the definition of "industrial furnaces"
RZINC: Resmelting in high temperature metal recovery units for the purpose of recovery of zinc
STABL: Stabilization with the following reagents (or waste reagents) or combinations of reagents:
SSTRP: Steam stripping of organics from liquid wastes utilizing direct application of steam to the wastes operated such that liquid and vapor flow rates, as well as temperature and pressure ranges, have been optimized, monitored, and maintained These operating parameters are dependent upon the design parameters of the unit, such as the number of separation stages and the internal column design, thus resulting in a condensed extract high in organics that must undergo either incineration, reuse as a fuel, or other recovery/reuse and an extracted wastewater that must undergo further treatment as specified in the standard
WETOX: Wet air oxidation performed in units operated such that a surrogate compound or indicator parameter has been substantially reduced in concentration in the residuals (eg, Total Organic Carbon can often be used as an indicator parameter for the oxidation of many organic constituents that cannot be directly analyzed in wastewater residues)
WTRRX: Controlled reaction with water for highly reactive inorganic or organic chemicals with precautionary controls for protection of workers from potential violent reactions as well as precautionary controls for potential emissions of toxic/ignitable levels of gases released during the reaction
Note 1: When a combination of these technologies (ie, a treatment train) is specified as a single treatment standard, the order of application is specified in § 26842, Table 2 by indicating the five letter technology code that must be applied first, then the designation "fb" (an abbreviation for "followed by"), then the five letter technology code for the technology that must be applied next, and so on
Note 2: When more than one technology (or treatment train) are specified as alternative treatment standards, the five letter technology codes (or the treatment trains) are separated by a semicolon (;) with the last technology preceded by the word "OR" This indicates that any one of these BDAT technologies or treatment trains can be used for compliance with the standard
For the requirements previously found in this section and for treatment standards in Table CCW-Constituent Concentrations in Wastes, refer to § 268.40.
"I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and am familiar with the information submitted in this petition and all attached documents, and that, based on my inquiry of those individuals immediately responsible for obtaining the information, I believe that the submitted information is true, accurate, and complete I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment"
NONE LISTED
Table 1. Alternative Treatment Standards for Hazardous Debris1
Technology description | Performance and/or design and operating standard | Contaminant restrictions2 |
A. Extraction Technologies | ||
1. Physical Extraction | ||
a. Abrasive Blasting Removal of contaminated debris surface layers using water and/or air pressure to propel a solid media(e.g., steel shot, aluminum oxide grit, plastic beads). | Glass, Metal, Plastic, Rubber: Treatment to a clean debris surface.3 Brick, Cloth, Concrete, Paper, Pavement, Rock, Wood: Removal of at least 0.6 cm of the surface layer; treatment to a clean debris surface.3 | All debris: None. |
b. Scarification, Grinding, and Planing: Process utilizing striking piston heads, saws, or rotating grinding wheels such that contaminated debris surface layers are removed. | Same as above. | Same as above. |
c. Spalling: Drilling or chipping holes at appropriate locations and depth in the contaminated debris surface and applying a tool which exerts a force on the sides of those holes such that the surface layer is removed. The surface layer removed remains hazardous debris subject to the debris treatment standards. | Same as above. | Same as above. |
d. Vibratory Finishing: Process utilizing scrubbing media, flushing fluid, and oscillating energy such that hazardous contaminants or contaminated debris surface layers are removed.4 | Same as above. | Same as above. |
e. High Pressure Steam and Water Sprays: Application of water or steam sprays of sufficient temperature, pressure, residence time, agitation, surfactants, and detergents to remove hazardous contaminants from debris surfaces or to remove contaminated debris surface layers. | Same as above. | Same as above. |
2. Chemical Extraction | ||
a. Water Washing and Spraying: Application of water sprays or water baths of sufficient temperature, pressure, residence time, agitation, surfactants, acids, bases, and detergents to remove hazardous contaminants from debris surfaces and surface pores or to remove contaminated debris surface layers. | All Debris: Treatment to a clean debris surface 3; Brick, Cloth, Concrete, Paper, Pavement, Rock, Debris must be no more than 1.2 cm (1/2 inch) in one dimension (i.e., thickness limit,5 except that this thickness limit may be waived under an "Equivalent Technology" approval under §268.42(b);8 debris surfaces must be in contact with water solution for at least 15 minutes. | Brick, Cloth, Concrete, Wood: Paper, Pavement, Wood: Contaminant must be soluble to at least 5% by weight in water solution or by weight in emulsion; if debris is contaminated with a dioxin-listed waste,6 an "Equivalent Technology" approval under §268.42(b) must be ontained.8 |
b. Liquid Phase Solvent Extraction: Removal of hazardous contaminant from debris surfaces and surface pores by applying a nonaqueous liquid or liquid solution which causes the hazardous contaminants to enter the liquid phase and be flushed away from the debris along with the liquid solution while using appropriate agitation, temperature, and residence time. | Same as above. | Brick, Cloth, Concrete, Paper, Pavement, Rock, Wood: same as above, except that contaminant must be soluble to at least 5% by weight in the solvent. |
c. Vapor Phase Solvent Extraction: Application of an organic vapor using sufficient agitation, residence time, and temperature to cause hazardous contaminants on contaminated debris surfaces and surface pores to enter the vapor phase and be flushed away with the organic vapor.4 | Same as above, except that brick, cloth, concrete, paper, pavement, rock and wood surfaces must be in contact with the organic vapor for at least 60 minutes. | Same as above. |
3. Thermal Extraction | ||
a. High Temperature Metals Recovery: Application of sufficient heat, residence time, mixing, fluxing agents, and/or carbon in a smelting, melting, or refining furnace to separate metals from debris. | For refining furnaces, treated debris must be separated from treatment residuals using simple physical or mechanical means,9 and, prior to further treatment, such residuals must meet the waste-specific treatment standards for organic compounds in the waste contaminating the debris. | Debris contaminated with a dioxin listed waste:5 Obtain an "Equivalent Technology" approval under §268.42(b).8 |
b. Thermal Desorption: Heating in an enclosed chamber under either oxidizing or nonoxidizing atmospheres at sufficient temperature and residence time to vaporize hazardous contaminants from contaminated surfaces and surface pores ant to remove the contaminants from the heating chamber in a gaseous exhaust gas.7 | All Debris: 5 Obtain an "Equivalent Technology" approval under §268.42(b);8 treated debris must be separated from treatment residuals using simple physical or mechanical means,9 and, prior to further treatment, such residue must meet the waste-specific treatment standards for organic compounds in the waste contaminating the debris. Brick, Cloth, Concrete, Paper, Pavement, Rock, Wood: Debris must be no more than 10 cm (4 inches) in one dimension (i.e., thickness limit),5 except that this thickness limit may be waived under the "Equivalent Technology" approval. | All Debris: Metals other than mercury. |
B. Destruction Technologies: | ||
1. Biological Destruction (Biodegradation): Removal of hazardous contaminants from debris surfaces and surface pores in an aqueous solution and biodegradation of organic or nonmetallic inorganic compounds (i.e., inorganics that contain phosphorus, nitrogen, or sulfur) in units operated under either aerobic or anaerobic conditions. | All Debris: 5 Obtain an "Equivalent Technology" approval under §268.42(b);8 treated debris must be separated from treatment residuals using simple physical or mechanical means,9 and, prior to further treatment, such residue must meet the waste-specific treatment standards for organic compounds in the waste contaminating the debris. Brick, Cloth, Concrete, Paper, Pavement, Rock, Wood: Debris must be no more than 1.2 cm (1/2 inches) in one dimension (i.e., thickness limit),5 except that this thickness limit may be waived under the "Equivalent Technology" approval. | All Debris: Metal contaminants |
2. Chemical Destruction | ||
a. Chemical Oxidation: Chemical or electrolytic oxidation utilizing the following oxidation reagents ( or waste reagents) or combination of reagents -(1) hypochlorite (e.g., bleach); (2) chlorine; (3) chlorine dioxide; (4) ozone or UV (Ultraviolet light) assisted ozone; (5) peroxides; (6) persulfates; (7) perchlorates; (8) permanganates; and/or (9) other oxidizing reagents of equivalent destruction efficiency.4 Chemical oxidation specifically Wood: includes what is referred to as alkaline chlorination. | All Debris: 5 Obtain an "Equivalent Technology" approval under §268.42(b);8 treated debris must be separated from treatment residuals using simple physical or mechanical means,9 and, prior to further treatment, such residue must meet the waste-specific treatment standards for organic compounds in the waste contaminating the debris. Brick, Cloth, Concrete, Paper, Pavement, Rock, Wood: Debris must be no more than 1.2 cm (1/2 inches) in one dimension (i.e., thickness limit),5 except that this thickness limit may be waived under the "Equivalent Technology" approval. | All Debris: Metal contaminants |
b. Chemical Reduction: Chemical reaction utilizing the following reducing reagents (or waste reagents) or combination of reagents: (1) Sulfur dioxide; (2) sodium, potassium, or alkali salts of sulfites, bisulfites, and metabisulfites, and polyethylene glycols (e.g., NaPEG and KPEG); (3) sodium hydrosulfide; (4) ferrous salts; and/or 5) other reducing reagents of equivalent efficiency.4 | Same as above. | Same as above. |
3. Thermal Destruction: Treatment in an incinerator operating in accordance with Subpart O of Sections 264 or 265 of this chapter; a boiler or industrial furnace operating in accordance with Subsection H of §266 of this chapter, or Subsection P, §265 of this chapter, but excluding for purposes of these debris treatment standards Thermal Desorption units. | Treated debris must be separated from treatment residuals using simple physical or mechanical means,9 and, prior to further treatment, such residue must meet the waste-specific treatment standards for organic compounds in the waste contaminating the debris. | Brick, Concrete, Glass, Metal, Pavement, Rock: Metals other than mercury, except that there are no metal restrictions for vitrification. Debris contaminated with a dioxin listed waste:5 Obtain an "Equivalent Technology" approval under §268.42(b),8 except that this requirement does not apply to vitrification. |
C. Immobilization Technologies: | ||
1. Macroencapsulation: Application of surface coating materials such as polymeric organics (e.g., resins and plastics) or use of a jacket of inert debris & inorganic material to substantially reduce surface exposure to potential leaching media. | Encapsulating material must completely encapsulate debris and be resistant to degradation by the contaminants and material in which it may come into contact after placement (leachate, other waste, microbes). | None. |
2. Microencapsulation: Stabilization of the debris with the following reagents (or waste reagents) such that the leachability of the hazardous contaminants is reduced: (1) Portland cement; or (2) lime/pozzolans (e.g., fly ash and cement kiln dust). Reagents (e.g., iron salts, silicates, and clays) may be added to enhance the set/cure time and/or compressive strength, or to reduce the leachability of the hazardous constituents.5 | Leachability of the hazardous contaminants must be reduced. | None. |
3. Sealing: Application of an appropriate material which adheres tightly to the debris surface to avoid exposure of the surface to potential leaching media. When necessary to effectively seal the surface, sealing entails pretreatment of the debris surface to remove foreign matter and to clean and roughen the surface. Sealing materials include epoxy, silicone, and urethane compounds, but paint may not be used as a sealant. | Sealing must avoid exposure of the debris surface to potential leaching media and sealant must be resistant to degradation by the debris and its contaminants and materials into which it may come into contact after placement (leachate, other waste, microbes). | None. |
FOOTNOTE: 1Hazardous debris must be treated by either these standards or the waste-specific treatment standards for the waste contaminating the debris. The treatment standards must be met for each type of debris contained in a mixture of debris types, unless the debris is converted into treatment residue as a result of the treatment process. Debris treatment residuals are subject to the waste-specific treatment standards for the waste contaminating the debris. FOOTNOTE: 2Contaminant restriction means that the technology is not BDAT for that contaminant. If debris containing a restricted contaminant is treated by the technology, the contaminant must be subsequently treated by a technology for which it is not restricted in order to be land disposed (and excluded from Subtitle C rule). FOOTNOTE: 3"Clean debris surface" means the surface, when viewed without magnification, shall be free of all visible contaminated soil and hazardous waste except that residual staining from soil and waste consisting of light shadows, slight streaks, or minor discolorations, and soil and waste in cracks, crevices, and pits may be present provided that such staining and waste and soil in cracks, crevices, and pits shall be limited to no more than 5% of each square inch of surface area. FOOTNOTE: 4Acids, solvents, and chemical reagents may react with some debris and contaminants to form hazardous compounds. For example, acid washing of cyanide-contaminated debris could result in the formation of hydrogen cyanide. Some acids may also react violently with some debris and contaminants, depending on the concentration of the acid and the type of debris and contaminants. Debris treaters should refer to the safety precautions specified in Material Safety Data Sheets for various acids to avoid applying an incompatible acid to a particular debris/contaminant combination. For example, concentrated sulfuric acid may react violently with certain organic compounds, such as acrylonitrile. FOOTNOTE: 5If reducing the particle size of debris to meet the treatment standards results in material that no longer meets the 60 mm minimum particle size limit for debris, such material is subject to the waste-specific treatment standards for the waste contaminating the material, unless the debris has been cleaned and separated from contaminated soil and waste prior to size reduction. At a minimum, simple physical or mechanical means must be used to provide such cleaning and separation of nondebris materials to ensure that the debris surface is free of caked soil, waste, or other nondebris material. FOOTNOTE: 6Dioxin-listed wastes are EPA Hazardous Waste numbers FO20, FO21, FO22, FO23, FO26, and FO27. FOOTNOTE: 7Thermal desorption is distinguished from Thermal Destruction in that the primary purpose of Thermal Desorption is to volatilize contaminants and to remove them from the treatment chamber for subsequent destruction or other treatment. FOOTNOTE: 8The demonstration "Equivalent Technology" under §268.42(b) must document that the technology treats contaminants subject to treatment to a level equivalent to that required by the performance and design and operating standards for other technologies in this table such that residual levels of hazardous contaminants will not pose a hazard to human health and the environment absent management controls. FOOTNOTE: 9Any soil, waste, and other nondebris material that remains on the debris surface (or remains mixed with the debris) after treatment is considered a treatment residual that must be separated from the debris using, at a minimum, simple physical or mechanical means. Examples of simple physical or mechanical means are vibratory or trommel screening or water washing. The debris surface need not be cleaned to a "clean debris surface" as defined in note 3 when separating treated debris from residue; rather, the surface must be free of caked soil, waste, or other nondebris material. Treatment residuals are subject to the waste-specific treatment standards for the waste contaminating the debris. | ||
For the treatment standards previously found in this section, refer to § 268.40
§ 268.48 Table UTS - Universal Treatment Standards
TABLE UTS - UNIVERSAL TREATMENT STANDARDS
NOTE: NA means not applicable
Regulated constituent common name | CAS1 number | Wastewater standard | Nonwastewater standard |
Concentration2 in mg/l | Concentration3 in mg/kgunless noted as "mg/l TCLP" | ||
Organic Constituents | |||
Acenaphthylene | 208-96-8 | 0.059 | 3.4 |
Acenaphthene | 83-32-9 | 0.059 | 3.4 |
Acetone | 67-64-1 | 0.28 | 160 |
Acetonitrile | 75-05-8 | 5.6 | 38 |
Acetophenone | 96-86-2 | 0.010 | 9.7 |
2-Acetylaminofluorene | 53-96-3 | 0.059 | 140 |
Acrolein | 107-02-8 | 0.29 | NA |
Acrylamide | 79-06-1 | 19 | 23 |
Acrylonitrile | 107-13-1 | 0.24 | 84 |
Aldrin | 309-00-2 | 0.021 | 0.066 |
4-Aminobiphenyl | 92-67-1 | 0.13 | NA |
Aniline | 62-53-3 | 0.81 | 14 |
o-Anisidine (2-methoxyaniline) | 90-04-0 | 0.010 | 0.66 |
Anthracene | 120-12-7 | 0.059 | 3.4 |
Aramite | 140-57-8 | 0.36 | NA |
alpha-BHC | 319-84-6 | 0.00014 | 0.066 |
beta-BHC | 319-85-7 | 0.00014 | 0.066 |
delta-BHC | 319-86-8 | 0.023 | 0.066 |
gamma-BHC | 58-89-9 | 0.0017 | 0.066 |
Benzene | 71-43-2 | 0.14 | 10 |
Benz(a)anthracene | 56-55-3 | 0.059 | 3.4 |
Benzal chloride | 98-87-3 | 0.055 | 6.0 |
Benzo(b)fluoranthene (difficult to distinguish from benzo(k)fluoranthene) | 205-99-2 | 0.11 | 6.8 |
Benzo(k)fluoranthene (difficult to distinguish from benzo(b)fluoranthene) | 207-08-9 | 0.11 | 6.8 |
Benzo(g,h,i)perylene | 191-24-2 | 0.0055 | 1.8 |
Benzo(a)pyrene | 50-32-8 | 0.061 | 3.4 |
Bromodichloromethane | 75-27-4 | 0.35 | 15 |
Bromomethane/Methyl bromide | 74-83-9 | 0.11 | 15 |
4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether | 101-55-3 | 0.055 | 15 |
n-Butyl alcohol | 71-36-3 | 5.6 | 2.6 |
Butyl benzyl phthalate | 85-68-7 | 0.017 | 28 |
2-sec-Butyl-4,6-dinitrophenol/Dinoseb | 88-85-7 | 0.066 | 2.5 |
Carbon disulfide | 75-15-0 | 3.8 | 4.8 mg/l TCLP |
Carbon tetrachloride | 56-23-5 | 0.057 | 6.0 |
Chlordane (alpha and gamma isomers) | 57-74-9 | 0.0033 | 0.26 |
p-Chloroaniline | 106-47-8 | 0.46 | 16 |
Chlorobenzene | 108-90-7 | 0.057 | 6.0 |
Chlorobenzilate | 510-15-6 | 0.10 | NA |
2-Chloro-1,3-butadiene | 126-99-8 | 0.057 | 0.28 |
Chlorodibromomethane | 124-48-1 | 0.057 | 15 |
Chloroethane | 75-00-3 | 0.27 | 6.0 |
bis(2-Chloroethoxy)methane | 111-91-1 | 0.036 | 7.2 |
bis(2-Chloroethyl)ether | 111-44-4 | 0.033 | 6.0 |
Chloroform | 67-66-3 | 0.046 | 6.0 |
bis(2-Chloroisopropyl)ether | 39638-32-9 | 0.055 | 7.2 |
p-Chloro-m-cresol | 59-50-7 | 0.018 | 14 |
2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether | 110-75-8 | 0.062 | NA |
Chloromethane/Methyl chloride | 74-87-3 | 0.19 | 30 |
2-Chloronaphthalene | 91-58-7 | 0.055 | 5.6 |
2-Chloropchenol | 95-57-8 | 0.044 | 5.7 |
3-Chloropropylene | 107-05-1 | 0.036 | 30 |
Chrysene | 218-01-9 | 0.059 | 3.4 |
p-Cresidine | 120-71-8 | 0.010 | 0.66 |
o-Cresol | 95-48-7 | 0.11 | 5.6 |
m-Cresol (difficult to distinguish from p-cresol) | 108-39-4 | 0.77 | 5.6 |
p-Cresol (difficult to distinguish from m-cresol) | 106-44-5 | 0.77 | 5.6 |
Cyclohexanone | 108-94-1 | 0.36 | 0.75 mg/l TCLP |
o,p'-DDD | 53-19-0 | 0.023 | 0.087 |
p,p'-DDD | 72-54-8 | 0.023 | 0.087 |
o,p'-DDE | 3424-82-6 | 0.031 | 0.087 |
p,p'-DDE | 72-55-9 | 0.031 | 0.087 |
o,p'-DDT | 789-02-6 | 0.0039 | 0.087 |
p,p'-DDT | 50-29-3 | 0.0039 | 0.087 |
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene | 53-70-3 | 0.055 | 8.2 |
Dibenz(a,e)pyrene | 192-65-4 | 0.061 | NA |
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane | 96-12-8 | 0.11 | 15 |
1,2-Dibromoethane/Ethylene dibromide | 106-93-4 | 0.028 | 15 |
Dibromomethane | 74-95-3 | 0.11 | 15 |
m-Dichlorobenzene | 541-73-1 | 0.036 | 6.0 |
o-Dichlorobenzene | 95-50-1 | 0.088 | 6.0 |
p-Dichlorobenzene | 106-46-7 | 0.090 | 6.0 |
Dichlorodifluoromethane | 75-71-8 | 0.23 | 7.2 |
1,1-Dichloroethane | 75-34-3 | 0.059 | 6.0 |
1,2-Dichloroethane | 107-06-2 | 0.21 | 6.0 |
1,1-Dichloroethylene | 75-35-4 | 0.025 | 6.0 |
trans-1,2-Dichloroethylene | 156-60-5 | 0.054 | 30 |
2,4-Dichlorophenol | 120-83-2 | 0.044 | 14 |
2,6-Dichlorophenol | 87-65-0 | 0.044 | 14 |
2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid/2,4-D | 94-75-7 | 0.72 | 10 |
1,2-Dichloropropane | 78-87-5 | 0.85 | 18 |
cis-1,3-Dichloropropylene | 10061-01-5 | 0.036 | 18 |
trans-1,3-Dichloropropylene | 10061-02-6 | 0.036 | 18 |
Dieldrin | 60-57-1 | 0.017 | 0.13 |
Diethyl phthalate | 84-66-2 | 0.20 | 28 |
p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene | 60-11-7 | 0.13 | NA |
2,4-Dimethylaniline (2,4-xylidine) | 95-68-1 | 0.010 | 0.66 |
2,4-Dimethyl phenol | 105-67-9 | 0.036 | 14 |
Dimethyl phthalate | 131-11-3 | 0.047 | 28 |
Di-n-butyl phthalate | 84-74-2 | 0.057 | 28 |
1,4-Dinitrobenzene | 100-25-4 | 0.32 | 2.3 |
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol | 534-52-1 | 0.28 | 160 |
2,4-Dinitrophenol | 51-28-5 | 0.12 | 160 |
2,4-Dinitrotoluene | 121-14-2 | 0.32 | 140 |
2,6-Dinitrotoluene | 606-20-2 | 0.55 | 28 |
Di-n-octyl phthalate | 117-84-0 | 0.017 | 28 |
Di-n-propylnitrosamine | 621-64-7 | 0.40 | 14 |
1,4-Dioxane | 123-91-1 | 12.0 | 170 |
Diphenylamine (difficult to distinguish from diphenylnitrosamine) | 122-39-4 | 0.92 | 13 |
Diphenylnitrosamine (difficult to distinguish from diphenylamine) | 86-30-6 | 0.92 | 13 |
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine | 122-66-7 | 0.087 | NA |
Disulfoton | 298-04-4 | 0.017 | 6.2 |
Endosulfan I | 959-98-8 | 0.023 | 0.066 |
Endosulfan II | 33213-65-9 | 0.029 | 0.13 |
Endosulfan sulfate | 1031-07-8 | 0.029 | 0.13 |
Endrin | 72-20-8 | 0.0028 | 0.13 |
Endrin aldehyde | 7421-93- | 0.025 | 0.13 |
4 | |||
Ethyl acetate | 141-78-6 | 0.34 | 33 |
Ethyl benzene | 100-41-4 | 0.057 | 10 |
Ethyl cyanide/Propanenitrile | 107-12-0 | 0.24 | 360 |
Ethyl ether | 60-29-7 | 0.12 | 160 |
bis(2-Ethylhexyl)phthalate | 117-81-7 | 0.28 | 28 |
Ethyl methacrylate | 97-63-2 | 0.14 | 160 |
Ethylene oxide | 75-21-8 | 0.12 | NA |
Famphur | 52-85-7 | 0.017 | 15 |
Fluoranthene | 206-44-0 | 0.068 | 3.4 |
Fluorene | 86-73-7 | 0.059 | 3.4 |
Heptachlor | 76-44-8 | 0.0012 | 0.066 |
1,2,3,4,6,7,8-Heptachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (1,2,3,4,6,7,8-HpCDD) | 35822-46-9 | 0.000035 | .0025 |
1,2,3,4,6,7,8-Heptachlorodibenzofluran (1,2,3,4,6,7,8-HpCDF) | 67562-39-4 | 0.000035 | .0025 |
1,2,3,4,7,8,9-Heptachlorodibenzofluran (1,2,3,4,7,8,9-HpCDF) | 55673-89-7 | 0.000035 | .0025 |
Heptachlor epoxide | 1024-57-3 | 0.016 | 0.066 |
Hexachlorobenzene | 118-74-1 | 0.055 | 10 |
Hexachlorobutadiene | 87-68-3 | 0.055 | 5.6 |
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene | 77-47-4 | 0.057 | 2.4 |
HxCDDs (All Hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins) | NA | 0.000063 | 0.001 |
HxCDFs (All Hexachlorodibenzofurans) | NA | 0.000063 | 0.001 |
Hexachloroethane | 67-72-1 | 0.055 | 30 |
Hexachloropropylene | 1888-71-7 | 0.035 | 30 |
Indeno(1,2,3-c,d) pyrene | 193-39-5 | 0.0055 | 3.4 |
Iodomethane | 74-88-4 | 0.19 | 65 |
Isobutyl alcohol | 78-83-1 | 5.6 | 170 |
Isodrin | 465-73-6 | 0.021 | 0.066 |
Isosafrole | 120-58-1 | 0.081 | 2.6 |
Kepone | 143-50-0 | 0.0011 | 0.13 |
Methacrylonitrile | 126-98-7 | 0.24 | 84 |
Methanol | 67-56-1 | 5.6 | 0.75 mg/l TCLP |
Methapyrilene | 91-80-5 | 0.081 | 1.5 |
Methoxychlor | 72-43-5 | 0.25 | 0.18 |
3-Methylcholanthrene | 56-49-5 | 0.0055 | 15 |
4,4-Methylene bis(2-chloroaniline) | 101-14-4 | 0.50 | 30 |
Methylene chloride | 75-09-2 | 0.089 | 30 |
Methyl ethyl ketone | 78-93-3 | 0.28 | 36 |
Methyl isobutyl ketone | 108-10-1 | 0.14 | 33 |
Methyl methacrylate | 80-62-6 | 0.14 | 160 |
Methyl methanesulfonate | 66-27-3 | 0.018 | NA |
Methyl parathion | 298-00-0 | 0.014 | 4.6 |
Naphthalene | 91-20-3 | 0.059 | 5.6 |
2-Naphthylamine | 91-59-8 | 0.52 | NA |
o-Nitroaniline | 88-74-4 | 0.27 | 14 |
p-Nitroaniline | 100-01-6 | 0.028 | 28 |
Nitrobenzene | 98-95-3 | 0.068 | 14 |
5-Nitro-o-toluidine | 99-55-8 | 0.32 | 28 |
o-Nitrophenol | 88-75-5 | 0.028 | 13 |
p-Nitrophenol | 100-02-7 | 0.12 | 29 |
N-Nitrosodiethylamine | 55-18-5 | 0.40 | 28 |
N-Nitrosodimethylamine | 62-75-9 | 0.40 | 2.3 |
N-Nitroso-di-n-butylamine | 924-16-3 | 0.40 | 17 |
N-Nitrosomethylethylamine | 10595-95-6 | 0.40 | 2.3 |
N-Nitrosomorpholine | 59-89-2 | 0.40 | 2.3 |
N-Nitrosopiperidine | 100-75-4 | 0.013 | 35 |
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine | 930-55-2 | 0.013 | 35 |
1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (OCDD) | 3268-87-9 | 0.000063 | 0.005 |
1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachlorodibenzofluran (OCDF) | 39001-02-0 | 0.000063 | 0.005 |
Parathion | 56-38-2 | 0.014 | 4.6 |
Total PCBs (sum of all PCB isomers, or all Aroclors)8 | 1336-36-3 | 0.10 | 10 |
Pentachlorobenzene | 608-93-5 | 0.055 | 10 |
PeCDDs (All Pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins) | NA | 0.000063 | 0.001 |
PeCDFs (All Pentachlorodibenzofurans) | NA | 0.000035 | 0.001 |
Pentachloroethane | 76-01-7 | 0.055 | 6.0 |
Pentachloronitrobenzene | 82-68-8 | 0.055 | 4.8 |
Pentachlorophenol | 87-86-5 | 0.089 | 7.4 |
Phenacetin | 62-44-2 | 0.081 | 16 |
Phenanthrene | 85-01-8 | 0.059 | 5.6 |
Phenol | 108-95-2 | 0.039 | 6.2 |
1,3-Phenylenediamine | 108-45-2 | 0.010 | 0.66 |
Phorate | 298-02-2 | 0.021 | 4.6 |
Phthalic acid | 100-21-0 | 0.055 | 28 |
Phthalic anhydride | 85-44-9 | 0.055 | 28 |
Pronamide | 23950-58-5 | 0.093 | 1.5 |
Pyrene | 129-00-0 | 0.067 | 8.2 |
Pyridine | 110-86-1 | 0.014 | 16 |
Safrole | 94-59-7 | 0.081 | 22 |
Silvex/2,4,5-TP | 93-72-1 | 0.72 | 7.9 |
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene | 95-94-3 | 0.055 | 14 |
TCDDs (All Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins) | NA | 0.000063 | 0.001 |
TCDFs (All Tetrachlorodibenzofurans) | NA | 0.000063 | 0.001 |
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane | 630-20-6 | 0.057 | 6.0 |
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane | 79-34-5 | 0.057 | 6.0 |
Tetrachloroethylene | 127-18-4 | 0.056 | 6.0 |
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol | 58-90-2 | 0.030 | 7.4 |
Toluene | 108-88-3 | 0.080 | 10 |
Toxaphene | 8001-35-2 | 0.0095 | 2.6 |
Tribromomethane/Bromoform | 75-25-2 | 0.63 | 15 |
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene | 120-82-1 | 0.055 | 19 |
1,1,1-Trichloroethane | 71-55-6 | 0.054 | 6.0 |
1,1,2-Trichloroethane | 79-00-5 | 0.054 | 6.0 |
Trichloroethylene | 79-01-6 | 0.054 | 6.0 |
Trichlorofluoromethane | 75-69-4 | 0.020 | 30 |
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol | 95-95-4 | 0.18 | 7.4 |
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol | 88-06-2 | 0.035 | 7.4 |
2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxyacetic acid/2,4,5-T | 93-76-5 | 0.72 | 7.9 |
1,2,3-Trichloropropane | 96-18-4 | 0.85 | 30 |
1,1,2-Trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane | 76-13-1 | 0.057 | 30 |
tris-(2,3-Dibromopropyl) phosphate | 126-72-7 | 0.11 | 0.10 |
Vinyl chloride | 75-01-4 | 0.27 | 6.0 |
Xylenes-mixed isomers (sum of o-, m-, and p-xylene concentrations) | 1330-20-7 | 0.32 | 30 |
Inorganic Constituents | |||
Antimony | 7440-36-0 | 1.9 | 1.15 mg/l TCLP |
Arsenic | 7440-38-2 | 1.4 | 5.0 mg/l TCLP |
Barium | 7440-39-3 | 1.2 | 21 mg/l TCLP |
Beryllium | 7440-41-7 | 0.82 | 1.22 mg/l TCLP |
Cadmium | 7440-43-9 | 0.69 | 0.11 mg/l TCLP |
Chromium (Total) | 7440-47-3 | 2.77 | 0.60 mg/l TCLP |
Cyanides (Total)4 | 57-12-5 | 1.2 | 590 |
Cyanides (Amenable)4 | 57-12-5 | 0.86 | 30 |
Fluoride5 | 16984-48-8 | 35 | NA |
Lead | 7439-92-1 | 0.69 | 0.75 mg/l TCLP |
Mercury-Nonwastewater from Retort | 7439-97-6 | NA | 0.20 mg/l TCLP |
Mercury-All Others | 7439-97-6 | 0.15 | 0.025 mg/l TCLP |
Nickel | 7440-02-0 | 3.98 | 11 mg/l TCLP |
Selenium7 | 7782-49-2 | 0.82 | 5.7 mg/l TCLP |
Silver | 7440-22-4 | 0.43 | 0.14 mg/l TCLP |
Sulfide5 | 18496-25-8 | 14 | NA |
Thallium | 7440-28-0 | 1.4 | 0.20 mg/l TCLP |
Vanadium5 | 7440-62-2 | 4.3 | 1.6 mg/l TCLP |
Zinc5 | 7440-66-6 | 2.61 | 4.3 mg/l TCLP |
FOOTNOTES TO TABLE UTS 1. CAS means Chemical Abstract Services When the waste code and/or regulated constituents are described as a combination of a chemical with its salts and/or esters, the CAS number is given for the parent compound only 2. Concentration standards for wastewaters are expressed in mg/L and are based on analysis of composite samples 3. Except for Metals (EP or TCLP) and Cyanides (Total and Amenable) the nonwastewater treatment standards expressed as a concentration were established, in part, based upon incineration in units operated in accordance with the technical requirements of Section 264, Subsection O or Section 265, Subsection O, or based upon combustion in fuel substitution units operating in accordance with applicable technical requirements A facility may comply with these treatment standards according to provisions in § 268.40(d) All concentration standards for nonwastewaters are based on analysis of grab samples 4. Both Cyanides (Total) and Cyanides (Amenable) for nonwastewaters are to be analyzed using Method 9010C or 9012B, found in "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," EPA Publication SW-846, as incorporated by reference in § 260.11, with a sample size of 10 grams and a distillation time of one hour and 15 minutes 5. These constituents are not "underlying hazardous constituents" in characteristic wastes, according to the definition at §268.2(i) 6. (Reserved) 7. This constituent is not an underlying hazardous constituent as defined at § 268.2(i) of this Section because its UTS level is greater than its TC level, thus a treated selenium waste would always be characteristically hazardous, unless it is treated to below its characteristic level 8. Measured in mg/L, TCLP. 9. This standard is temporarily deferred for soil exhibiting a hazardous characteristic due to D004-D011 only. | |||
*For dates of LDR applicability, see Section 268 Appendix VII. To determine the date any given listed hazardous waste contaminated any given volume of soil, use the last date any given listed hazardous waste was placed into any given land disposal unit or, in the case of an accidental spill, the date of the spill.
If LDRs | And if LDRs | And if | Then you |
Applied to the listed waste when it contaminated the soil* | Apply to the listed waste now | Must comply with LDRs | |
Didn't apply to the listed waste when it contaminated the soil* | Apply to the listed waste now | The soil is determined to contain the listed waste when the soil is first generated | Must comply with LDRs. |
Didn't apply to the listed waste when it contaminated the soil* | Apply to the listed waste now | The soil is determined not to contain the listed waste when the soil is first generated | Needn't comply with LDRs. |
Didn't apply to the listed waste when it contaminated the soil* | Don't apply to the listed waste now | Needn't comply with LDRs. |
Appendix I to Section 268 -- [Reserved]
Appendix II to Section 268 -- [Reserved]
Appendix III to Section 268-List of Halogenated Organic Compounds Regulated Under § 268.32
In determining the concentration of HOCs in a hazardous waste for purposes of the § 26832 land disposal prohibition, EPA has defined the HOCs that must be included in a calculation as any compounds having a carbon-halogen bond which are listed in this Appendix (see § 268.2). Appendix III to Part 268 consists of the following compounds:
9 3-Chloropropionitrile
Appendix IV to Section 268-Wastes Excluded From Lab Packs Under the Alternative Treatment Standards of § 268.42(c)
Hazardous waste with the following EPA Hazardous Waste Codes may not be placed in lab packs under the alternative lab pack treatment standards of § 268.42(c): D009, F019, K003, K004, K005, K006, K062, K071, K100, K106, P010, P011, P012, P076, P078, U134, U151.
Appendix V to Section 268 -- [Reserved]
Appendix VI to Section 268 - Recommended Technologies to Achieve Deactivation of Characteristics in Section 268.42
The treatment standard for many characteristic wastes is stated in the § 268.40 Table of Treatment Standards as "Deactivation and meev UTS." EPA has determined that many technologies, when used alone or in combination, can achieve the deactivation portion of the treatment standard. Characteristic wastes that are not managed in a facility regulated by the Clean Water Act (CWA) or in a CWA-equivalent facility, and that also contain underlying hazardous constituents (see § 268.2(i)) must be treated not only by a "deactivating" technology to remove the characteristic, but also to achieve the universal treatment standards (UTS) for underlying hazardous constituents. The following appendix presents a partial list of technologies, utilizing the five letter technology codes established in § 268.42 Table 1, that may be useful in meeting the treatment standard. Use of these specific technologies is not mandatory and does not preclude direct reuse, recovery, and/or the use of other pretreatment technologies, provided deactivation is achieved and underlying hazardous constituents are treated to achieve the UTS.
Waste code/subcategory | Nonwastewaters | Wastewaters |
D001 Ignitable Liquids based on 261.21(a)(1)-Low TOC Nonwastewater Subcategory (containing 1% to <10% TOC) | RORGS INCIN WETOX CHOXD BIODG | n.a. |
D001 Ignitable Liquids based on 261.21(a)(1)-Ignitable Wastewater Subcategory (containing <1% TOC) | n.a. | RORGS INCIN WETOX CHOXD BIODG |
D001 Compressed Gases based on 261.21(A)(3) | RCGAS INCIN FSUBS ADGAS fb. INCIN ADGAS fb. (CHOXD; or CHRED) | n.a. |
D001 Ignitable Reactives based on 261.21(a)(2) | WTRRX CHOXD CHRED STABL INCIN | n.a. |
D001 Ignitable Oxidizers based on 261.21(a)(4) | CHRED INCIN | CHRED INCIN |
D002 Acid Subcategory based on 261.22(a)(1) with pH less than or equal to 2 | RCORR NEUTR INCIN | NEUTR INCIN |
D002 Alkaline Subcategory based on 261.22(a)(1) with pH greater than or equal to 12.5 | NEUTR INCIN | NEUTR INCIN |
D002 Other Corrosives based on 261.22(a)(2) | CHOXD CHRED INCIN STABL | CHOXD CHRED INCIN |
D003 Water Reactives based on 261.23(a) (2), (3), and (4) | INCIN WTRRX CHOXD CHRED | n.a. |
D003 Reactive Sulfides based on 261.23(a)(5) | CHOXD CHRED INCIN STABL | CHOXD CHRED BIODG INCIN |
D003 Explosives based on 261.23(a) (6), (7), and (8) | INCIN CHOXD CHRED | INCIN CHOXD CHRED BIODG CARBN |
D003 Other Reactives based on 261.23(a)(1) | INCIN CHOXD CHRED | INCIN CHOXD CHRED BIODG CARBN |
K044 Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing and processing of explosives | CHOXD CHRED INCIN | CHOXD CHRED BIODG CARBN INCIN |
K045 Spent carbon from the treatment of wastewaters containing explosives | CHOXD CHRED INCIN | CHOXD CHRED BIODG CARBN INCIN |
K047 Pink/red water from TNT operations | CHOXD CHRED INCIN | CHOXD CHRED BIODG CARBN INCIN |
Note: "N/A" stands for "not applicable"; "fb" stands for "followed by"
Appendix VII to Section 268
Table 1
Effective Dates of Surface Disposed Wastes (Non-Soil and Debris) Regulated in the LDRSa- Comprehensive List
Waste code | Waste category | Effective date |
D001c | All (except High TOC Ignitable Liquids) | Aug. 9, 1993. |
D001 | High TOC Ignitable Liquids | Aug. 8, 1990. |
D002c | All | Aug. 9, 1993. |
D003 | Newly identified surface-disposed elemental phosphorus processing wastes | May 26, 2000. |
D004 | Newly identified D004 and mineral processing wastes | Aug. 24, 1998. |
D004 | Mixed radioactive/newly identified D004 or mineral processing wastes | May 26, 2000 |
D005 | Newly identified D005 and mineral processing wastes | Aug. 24, 1998. |
D005 | Mixed radioactive/newly identified D005 or mineral processing wastes | May 26, 2000. |
D006 | Newly identified D006 and mineral processing wastes | Aug. 24, 1998. |
D006 | Mixed radioactive/newly identified D006 or mineral processing wastes | May 26, 2000. |
D007 | Newly identified D007 and mineral processing wastes | Aug. 24, 1998. |
D007 | Mixed radioactive/newly identified D007 or mineral processing wastes | May 26, 2000. |
D008 | Newly identified D008 and mineral processing waste | Aug. 24, 1998. |
D008 | Mixed radioactive/newly identified D008 or mineral processing wastes | May 26, 2000. |
D009 | Newly identified D009 and mineral processing waste | Aug. 24, 1998. |
D009 | Mixed radioactive/newly identified D009 or mineral processing wastes | May 26, 2000. |
D010 | Newly identified D010 and mineral processing wastes | Aug. 24, 1998. |
D010 | Mixed radioactive/newly identified D010 or mineral processing wastes | May 26, 2000. |
D011 | Newly identified D011 and mineral processing wastes | Aug. 24, 1998. |
D011 | Mixed radioactive/newly identified D011 or mineral processing wastes | May 26, 2000. |
D012 (that exhibit the toxicity characteristic based on the TCLP)d | All | Dec. 14, 1994. |
D013 (that exhibit the toxicity characteristic based on the TCLP)d | All | Dec. 14, 1994. |
D014 (that exhibit the toxicity characteristic based on the TCLP)d | All | Dec. 14, 1994. |
D015 (that exhibit the toxicity characteristic based on the TCLP)d | All | Dec. 14, 1994. |
D016 (that exhibit the toxicity characteristic based on the TCLP)d | All | Dec. 14, 1994. |
D017 (that exhibit the toxicity characteristic based on the TCLP)d | All | Dec. 14, 1994. |
D018 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D018 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D019 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D019 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D020 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D020 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D021 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D021 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D022 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D022 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D023 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D023 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D024 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D024 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D025 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D025 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D026 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D026 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D027 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D027 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D028 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D028 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D029 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D029 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D030 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19. 1996. |
D030 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D031 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D031 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D032 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D032 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D033 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D033 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D034 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D034 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D035 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D035 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D036 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D036 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D037 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D037 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D038 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D038 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D039 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D039 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D040 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D040 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D041 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D041 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D042 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D042 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
D043 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sept. 19, 1996. |
D043 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
F001 | Small quantity generators, CERCLA response/RCRA corrective action, initial generator's solvent-water mixtures, solvent-containing sludges and solids | Nov. 8, 1988. |
F001 | All others | Nov. 8, 1986. |
F002 (1,1,2-trichloroethane) | Wastewater and Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
F002 | Small quantity generators, CERCLA response/RCRA corrective action, initial generator's solvent-water mixtures, solvent-containing sludges and solids | Nov. 8, 1988. |
F002 | All others | Nov. 8, 1986. |
F003 | Small quantity generators, CERCLA response/RCRA corrective action, initial generator's solvent-water mixtures, solvent-containing sludges and solids | Nov. 8, 1988. |
F003 | All others | Nov. 8, 1986. |
F004 | Small quantity generators, CERCLA response/RCRA corrective action, initial generator's solvent-water mixtures, solvent-containing sludges and solids | Nov. 8, 1988. |
F004 | All others | Nov. 8, 1986. |
F005 (benzene, 2-ethoxy ethanol, 2-nitropropane) | Wastewater and Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
F005 | Small quantity generators, CERCLA response/RCRA corrective action, initial generator's solvent-water mixtures, solvent-containing sludges and solids | Nov. 8, 1988. |
F005 | All others | Nov. 8, 1986. |
F006 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
F006 | Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
F006 (cyanides) | Nonwastewater | July 8, 1989. |
F007 | All | July 8, 1989. |
F008 | All | July 8, 1989. |
F009 | All | July 8, 1989. |
F010 | All | June 8, 1989. |
F011 (cyanides) | Nonwastewater | Dec. 8, 1989. |
F011 | All others | July 8, 1989. |
F012 (cyanides) | Nonwastewater | Dec. 8, 1989. |
F012 | All others | July 8, 1989. |
F019 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
F020 | All | Nov. 8, 1988. |
F021 | All | Nov. 8, 1988. |
F025 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
F026 | All | Nov. 8, 1988. |
F027 | All | Nov. 8, 1988. |
F028 | All | Nov. 8, 1988. |
F032 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | May 12, 1999 |
F032 | All others | Aug. 12, 1997. |
F034 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | May 12, 1999 |
F034 | All others | Aug. 12, 1997. |
F035 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | May 12, 1999. |
F035 | All others | Aug. 12, 1997. |
F037 | Not generated from surface impoundment cleanouts or closures | June 30, 1993. |
F037 | Generated from surface impoundment cleanouts or closures | June 30, 1994. |
F037 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
F038 | Not generated from surface impoundment cleanouts or closures | June 30, 1993. |
F038 | Generated from surface impoundment cleanouts or closures | June 30, 1994. |
F038 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
F039 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
F039 | Nonwastewater | May 8, 1992. |
K001 (organics)b | All | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K001 | All others | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K002 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K003 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K004 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K004 | Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K005 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K005 | Nonwastewater | June 8, 1989. |
K006 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K007 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K007 | Nonwastewater | June 8, 1989. |
K008 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K008 | Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K009 | All | June 8, 1989. |
K010 | All | June 8, 1989. |
K011 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K011 | Nonwastewater | June 8, 1989. |
K013 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K013 | Nonwastewater | June 8, 1989. |
K014 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K014 | Nonwastewater | June 8, 1989. |
K015 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K015 | Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K016 | All | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K017 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K018 | All | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K019 | All | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K020 | All | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K021 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K021 | Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K022 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K022 | Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K023 | All | June 8, 1989. |
K024 | All | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K025 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K025 | Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K026 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K027 | All | June 8, 1989. |
K028 (metals) | Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K028 | All others | June 8, 1989. |
K029 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K029 | Nonwastewater | June 8, 1989. |
K030 | All | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K031 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K031 | Nonwastewater | May 8, 1992. |
K032 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K033 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K034 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K035 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K036 | Wastewater | June 8, 1989. |
K036 | Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K037b | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K037 | Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K038 | All | June 8, 1989. |
K039 | All | June 8, 1989. |
K040 | All | June 8, 1989. |
K041 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K042 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K043 | All | June 8, 1989. |
K044 | All | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K045 | All | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K046 (Nonreactive) | Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K046 | All others | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K047 | All | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K048 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K048 | Nonwastewater | Nov. 8, 1990. |
K049 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K049 | Nonwastewater | Nov. 8, 1990. |
K050 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K050 | Nonwastewater | Nov. 8, 1990. |
K051 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K051 | Nonwastewater | Nov. 8, 1990. |
K052 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K052 | Nonwastewater | Nov. 8, 1990. |
K060 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K060 | Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K061 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K061 | Nonwastewater | June 30, 1992. |
K062 | All | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K069 (Non-Calcium Sulfate) | Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K069 | All others | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K071 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K073 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K083 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K084 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K084 | Nonwastewater | May 8, 1992. |
K085 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K086 (organics)b | All | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K086 | All others | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K087 | All | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K088 | All others | Oct. 8, 1997. |
K088 | All others | Jan. 8, 1997. |
K093 | All | June 8, 1989. |
K094 | All | June 8, 1989. |
K095 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K095 | Nonwastewater | June 8, 1989. |
K096 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K096 | Nonwastewater | June 8, 1989. |
K097 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K098 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K099 | All | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K100 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K100 | Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K101 (organics) | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K101 (metals) | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K101 (organics) | Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K101 (metals) | Nonwastewater | May 8, 1992. |
K102 (organics) | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K102 (metals) | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K102 (organics) | Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K102 (metals) | Nonwastewater | May 8, 1992. |
K103 | All | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K104 | All | Aug. 8, 1988. |
K105 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K106 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K106 | Nonwastewater | May 8, 1992. |
K107 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
K107 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K108 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
K108 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K109 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
K109 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K110 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
K110 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K111 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
K111 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K112 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
K112 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K113 | All | June 8, 1989. |
K114 | All | June 8, 1989. |
K115 | All | June 8, 1989. |
K116 | All | June 8, 1989. |
K117 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
K117 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K118 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
K118 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K123 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
K123 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K124 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
K124 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K125 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
K125 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K126 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
K126 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K131 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
K131 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K132 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
K132 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K136 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
K136 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K141 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sep. 19, 1996. |
K141 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K142 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sep. 19, 1996. |
K142 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K143 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sep. 19, 1996. |
K143 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K144 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sep. 19, 1996. |
K144 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K145 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sep. 19, 1996. |
K145 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K147 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sep. 19, 1996. |
K147 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K148 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sep. 19, 1996. |
K148 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K149 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sep. 19, 1996. |
K149 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K150 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sep. 19, 1996. |
K150 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K151 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Sep. 19, 1996. |
K151 | All others | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K156 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
K156 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
K157 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
K157 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
K158 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
K158 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
K159 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
K159 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
K160 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
K160 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
K161 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
K161 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P001 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P002 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P003 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P004 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P005 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P006 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P007 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P008 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P009 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P010 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P010 | Nonwastewater | May 8, 1992. |
P011 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P011 | Nonwastewater | May 8, 1992. |
P012 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P012 | Nonwastewater | May 8, 1992. |
P013 (barium) | Nonwastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P013 | All others | June 8, 1989. |
P014 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P015 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P016 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P017 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P018 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P020 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P021 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P022 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P023 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P024 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P026 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P027 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P028 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P029 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P030 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P031 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P033 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P034 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P036 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P036 | Nonwastewater | May 8, 1992. |
P037 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P038 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P038 | Nonwastewater | May 8, 1992. |
P039 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P040 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P041 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P042 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P043 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P044 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P045 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P046 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P047 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P048 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P049 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P050 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P051 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P054 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P056 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P057 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P058 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P059 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P060 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P062 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P063 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P064 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P065 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P065 | Nonwastewater | May 8, 1992. |
P066 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P067 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P068 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P069 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P070 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P071 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P072 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P073 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P074 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P075 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P076 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P077 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P078 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P081 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P082 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P084 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P085 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P087 | All | May 8, 1992. |
P088 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P089 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P092 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P092 | Nonwastewater | May 8, 1992. |
P093 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P094 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P095 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P096 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P097 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P098 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P099 (silver) | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P099 | All others | June 8, 1989. |
P101 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P102 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P103 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P104 (silver) | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P104 | All others | June 8, 1989. |
P105 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P106 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P108 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P109 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P110 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P111 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P112 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P113 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P114 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P115 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P116 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P118 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P119 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P120 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P121 | All | June 8, 1989. |
P122 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P123 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
P127 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P127 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P128 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P128 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P185 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P185 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P188 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P188 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P189 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P189 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P190 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P190 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P191 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P191 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P192 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P192 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P194 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P194 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P196 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P196 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P197 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P197 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P198 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P198 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P199 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P199 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P201 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P201 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P202 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P202 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P203 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P203 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P204 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P204 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
P205 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
P205 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U001 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U002 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U003 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U004 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U005 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U006 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U007 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U008 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U009 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U010 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U011 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U012 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U014 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U015 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U016 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U017 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U018 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U019 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U020 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U021 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U022 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U023 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U024 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U025 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U026 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U027 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U028 | All | June 8, 1989. |
U029 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U030 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U031 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U032 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U033 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U034 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U035 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U036 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U037 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U038 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U039 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U041 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U042 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U043 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U044 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U045 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U046 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U047 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U048 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U049 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U050 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U051 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U052 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U053 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U055 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U056 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U057 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U058 | All | June 8, 1989. |
U059 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U060 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U061 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U062 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U063 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U064 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U066 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U067 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U068 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U069 | All | June 30, 1992. |
U070 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U071 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U072 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U073 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U074 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U075 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U076 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U077 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U078 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U079 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U080 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U081 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U082 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U083 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U084 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U085 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U086 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U087 | All | June 8, 1989. |
U088 | All | June 8, 1989. |
U089 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U090 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U091 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U092 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U093 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U094 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U095 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U096 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U097 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U098 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U099 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
UlOl | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U102 | All | June 8, 1989. |
U103 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U105 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U106 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U107 | All | June 8, 1989. |
U108 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U109 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U110 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U111 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U112 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U113 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U114 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U115 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U116 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U117 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U118 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U119 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U120 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U121 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U122 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U123 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U124 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U125 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U126 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U127 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U128 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U129 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U130 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U131 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U132 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U133 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U134 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U135 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U136 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U136 | Nonwastewater | May 8, 1992. |
U137 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U138 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U140 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U141 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U142 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U143 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U144 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U145 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U146 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U147 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U148 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U149 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U150 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U151 | Wastewater | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U151 | Nonwastewater | May 8, 1992. |
U152 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U153 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U154 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U155 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U156 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U157 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U158 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U159 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U160 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U161 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U162 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U163 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U164 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U165 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U166 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U167 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U168 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U169 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U170 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U171 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U172 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U173 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U174 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U176 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U177 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U178 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U179 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U180 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U181 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U182 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U183 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U184 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U185 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U186 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U187 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U188 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U189 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U190 | All | June 8, 1989. |
U191 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U192 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U193 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U194 | All | June 8, 1989. |
U196 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U197 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U200 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U201 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U203 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U204 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U205 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U206 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U207 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U208 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U209 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U210 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U211 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U213 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U214 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U215 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U216 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U217 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U218 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U219 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U220 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U221 | All | June 8, 1989. |
U222 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U223 | All | June 8, 1989. |
U225 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U226 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U227 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U228 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U234 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U235 | All | June 8, 1989. |
U236 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U237 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U238 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U239 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U240 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U243 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U244 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U246 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U247 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U248 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U249 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
U271 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U271 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U277 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U277 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U278 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U278 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U279 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U279 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U280 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U280 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U328 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
U328 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
U353 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
U353 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
U359 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | June 30, 1994. |
U359 | All others | Nov. 9, 1992. |
U364 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U364 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U365 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U365 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U366 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U366 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U367 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U367 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U372 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U372 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U373 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U373 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U375 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U375 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U376 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U376 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U377 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U377 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U378 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U378 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U379 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U379 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U381 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U381 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U382 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U382 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U383 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U383 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U384 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U384 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U385 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U385 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U386 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U386 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U387 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U387 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U389 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U389 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U390 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U390 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U391 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U391 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U392 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U392 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U393 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U393 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U394 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U394 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U395 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U395 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U396 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U396 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U400 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U400 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U401 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U401 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U402 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U402 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U403 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U403 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U404 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U404 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U407 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U407 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U409 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U409 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U410 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U410 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
U411 | Mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
U411 | All others | July 8, 1996. |
aThis table does not include mixed radioactive wastes (from the First, Second, and Third Third rules) which received national capacity variance until May 8, 1992 This table also does not include contaminated soil and debris wastes
bThe standard was revised in the Third Third Final Rule (55 FR 22520, June 1, 1990)
cThe standard was revised in the Third Third Emergency Rule (58 FR 29860, May 24, 1993); the original effective date was August 8, 1990
d The standard was revised in the Phase II Final Rule (59 FR 47982, Sept 19, 1994); the original effective date was August 8, 1990
eThe standards for selected reactive wastes was revised in the Phase III Final Rule (61 FR 15566, Apr 8, 1996); the original effective date was August 8, 1990
Table 2
Summary of Effective Dates of Land Disposal Restrictions for Contaminated Soil and
Debris (CSD)
Restricted hazardous waste in CSD | Effective date |
1. Solvent-(F001-F005) and dioxin-(F020-F023 and F026-F028) containing soil and debris from CERCLA response or RCRA corrective actions | Nov. 8, 1990. |
2. Soil and debris not from CERCLA response or RCRA corrective actions contaminated with less than 1% total solvents (F001-F005) or dioxins (F020-F023 and F026-F028) | Nov. 8, 1988. |
3 All soil and debris contaminated with First Third wastes for which treatment standards are based on incineration | Aug. 8, 1990. |
4. All soil and debris contaminated with Second Third wastes for which treatment standards are based on incineration | June 8, 1991. |
5. All soil and debris contaminated with Third Third wastes or, First or Second Third "soft hammer" wastes which had treatment standards promulgated in the Third Third rule, for which treatment standards are based on incineration, vitrification, or mercury retorting, acid leaching followed by chemical precipitation, or thermal recovery of metals; as well as all inorganic solids debris contaminated with D004-D011 wastes, and all soil and debris contaminated with mixed RCRA/radioactive wastes | May 8, 1992. |
6. Soil and debris contaminated with D012-D043, K141-K145, and K147-151 wastes | Dec. 19, 1994. |
7. Debris (only) contaminated with F037, F038, K107-K112, K117, K118, K123-K126, K131, K132, K136, U328, U353, U359 | Dec. 19,1994 |
8. Soil and debris contaminated with K156-K161, P127, P128, P188-P192, P194, P196-P199, P201-P205, U271, U277-U280, U364-U367, U372, U373, U375-U379, U381-U387, U389-U396, U400-U404, U407, and U409-U411 wastes | July 8, 1996. |
9. Soil and debris contaminated with K088 wastes | Oct. 8, 1997. |
10. Soil and debris contaminated with radioactive wastes mixed with K088, K156-K161, P127, P128, P188-P192, P194, P196-P199, P201-P205, U271, U277-U280, U364-U367, U372, U373, U375-U379, U381-U387, U389-U396, U400-U404, U407, and U409-U411 wastes | April 8, 1998. |
11. Soil and debris contaminated with F032, F034, and F035 | May 12, 1997. |
12. Soil and debris contaminated with newly identified D004-D011 toxicity characteristic wastes and mineral processing wastes. | Aug. 24, 1998. |
13. Soil and debris contaminated with mixed radioactive newly identified D004-D011 characteristic wastes and mineral processing wastes. | May 26, 2000. |
Note: Appendix VII is provided for the convenience of the reader
Appendix VIII to Section 268 - LDR Effective Dates of Injected Prohibited Hazardous Wastes
National Capacity LDR Variances for UIC Wastesa
Waste code | Waste category | Effective date |
F001-F005 | All spent F001-F005 solvent containing less than 1 percent total F001-F005 solvent constituents | Aug. 8, 1990. |
D001 (except High TOC Ignitable Liquids Subcategory)c | All | Feb. 10, 1994. |
D001 (High TOC Ignitable Characteristic Liquids Subcategory) | Nonwastewater | Sept. 19, 1995. |
D002b | All | May 8, 1992. |
D002c | All | Feb. 10, 1994. |
D003 (cyanides) | All | May 8, 1992. |
D003 (sulfides) | All | May 8, 1992. |
D003 (explosives, reactives) | All | May 8, 1992. |
D007 | All | May 8, 1992. |
D009 | Nonwastewater | May 8, 1992. |
D012 | All | Sept. 19, 1995. |
D013 | All | Sept. 19, 1995. |
D014 | All | Sept. 19, 1995. |
D015 | All | Sept. 19, 1995. |
D016 | All | Sept. 19, 1995. |
D017 | All | Sept. 19, 1995. |
D018 | All, including mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D019 | All, including mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D020 | All, including mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D021 | All, including mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D022 | All, including mixed with radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D023 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D024 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D025 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D026 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D027 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D028 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D029 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D030 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D031 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D032 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D033 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D034 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D035 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D036 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D037 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D038 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D039 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D040 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D041 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D042 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
D043 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | Apr. 8, 1998. |
F007 | All | June 8, 1991. |
F032 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | May 12, 1999. |
F034 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | May 12, 1999. |
F035 | All, including mixed radioactive wastes | May 12, 1999. |
F037 | All | Nov. 8, 1992. |
F038 | All | Nov. 8, 1992. |
F039 | Wastewater | May 8, 1992. |
K009 | Wastewater | June 8, 1991. |
K011 | Nonwastewater | June 8, 1991. |
K011 | Wastewater | May 8, 1992. |
K013 | Nonwastewater | June 8, 1991. |
K013 | Wastewater | May 8, 1992. |
K014 | All | May 8, 1992. |
K016 (dilute) | All | June 8, 1991. |
K049 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K050 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K051 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K052 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K062 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K071 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K088 | All | Jan. 8, 1997. |
K104 | All | Aug. 8, 1990. |
K107 | All | Nov. 8, 1992. |
K108 | All | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K109 | All | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K110 | All | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K111 | All | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K112 | All | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K117 | All | June 30, 1995. |
K118 | All | June 30, 1995. |
K123 | All | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K124 | All | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K125 | All | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K126 | All | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K131 | All | June 30, 1995. |
K132 | All | June 30, 1995. |
K136 | All | Nov. 9, 1992. |
K141 | All | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K142 | All | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K143 | All | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K144 | All | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K145 | All | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K147 | All | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K148 | All | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K149 | All | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K150 | All | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K151 | All | Dec. 19, 1994. |
K156 | All | July 8, 1996. |
K157 | All | July 8, 1996. |
K158 | All | July 8, 1996. |
K159 | All | July 8, 1996. |
K160 | All | July 8, 1996. |
K161 | All | July 8, 1996. |
NA | Newly identified mineral processing wastes from titanium dioxide production and mixed radioactive/newly identified D004-D011 characteristic wastes and mineral processing wastes. | May 26, 2000. |
P127 | All | July 8, 1996. |
P128 | All | July 8, 1996. |
P185 | All | July 8, 1996. |
P188 | All | July 8, 1996. |
P189 | All | July 8, 1996. |
P190 | All | July 8, 1996. |
P191 | All | July 8, 1996. |
P192 | All | July 8, 1996. |
P194 | All | July 8, 1996. |
P196 | All | July 8, 1996. |
P197 | All | July 8, 1996. |
P198 | All | July 8, 1996. |
P199 | All | July 8, 1996. |
P201 | All | July 8, 1996. |
P202 | All | July 8, 1996. |
P203 | All | July 8, 1996. |
P204 | All | July 8, 1996. |
P205 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U271 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U277 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U278 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U279 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U280 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U328 | All | Nov. 9, 1992. |
U353 | All | Nov. 9, 1992. |
U359 | All | Nov. 9, 1992. |
U364 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U365 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U366 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U367 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U372 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U373 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U375 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U376 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U377 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U378 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U379 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U381 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U382 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U383 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U384 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U385 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U386 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U387 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U389 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U390 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U391 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U392 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U395 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U396 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U400 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U401 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U402 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U403 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U404 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U407 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U409 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U410 | All | July 8, 1996. |
U411 | All | July 8, 1996. |
a Wastes that are deep well disposed on-site receive a six-month variance, with restrictions effective in November 1990.
b Deepwell injected D002 liquids with a pH less than 2 must meet the California List treatment standards on August 8, 1990
c Managed in systems defined in 40 CFR 1446(e) and 146(e) as Class V injection wells, that do not engage in CWA-equivalent treatment before injection. Note: This table is provided for the convenience of the reader
Appendix IX to Section 268
See 40 CFR 268, Appendix IX
Appendix XI to Part 268 - Metal Bearing Wastes Prohibited From Dilution in a Combustion Unit According to 40 CFR 268.3(c)1
Waste code | Waste description |
D004 | Toxicity Characteristic for Arsenic. |
D005 | Toxicity Characteristic for Barium. |
D006 | Toxicity Characteristic for Cadmium. |
D007 | Toxicity Characteristic for Chromium. |
D008 | Toxicity Characteristic for Lead. |
D009 | Toxicity Characteristic for Mercury. |
D010 | Toxicity Characteristic for Selenium. |
D011 | Toxicity Characteristic for Silver. |
F006 | Wastewater treatment sludges from electroplating operations except from the following processes: (1) sulfuric acid anodizing of aluminum; (2) tin plating carbon steel; (3) zinc plating (segregated basis) on carbon steel; (4) aluminum or zinc-plating on carbon steel; (5) cleaning/stripping associated with tin, zinc and aluminum plating on carbon steel; and (6) chemical etching and milling of aluminum. |
F007 | Spent cyanide plating bath solutions from electroplating operations. |
F008 | Plating bath residues from the bottom of plating baths from electroplating operations where cyanides are used in the process. |
F009 | Spent stripping and cleaning bath solutions from electroplating operations where cyanides are used in the process. |
F010 | Quenching bath residues from oil baths from metal treating operations where cyanides are used in the process. |
F011 | Spent cyanide solutions from salt bath pot cleaning from metal heat treating operations. |
F012 | Quenching waste water treatment sludges from metal heat treating operations where cyanides are used in the process. |
F019 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the chemical conversion coating of aluminum except from zirconium phosphating in aluminum car washing when such phosphating is an exclusive conversion coating process. |
K002 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome yellow and orange pigments. |
K003 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of molybdate orange pigments. |
K004 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of zinc yellow pigments. |
K005 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome green pigments. |
K006 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome oxide green pigments (anhydrous and hydrated). |
K007 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of iron blue pigments. |
K008 | Oven residue from the production of chrome oxide green pigments. |
K061 | Emission control dust/sludge from the primary production of steel in electric furnaces. |
K069 | Emission control dust/sludge from secondary lead smelting. |
K071 | Brine purification muds from the mercury cell processes in chlorine production, where separately prepurified brine is not used. |
K100 | Waste leaching solution from acid leaching of emission control dust/sludge from secondary lead smelting. |
K106 | Sludges from the mercury cell processes for making chlorine. |
P010 | Arsenic acid H3 AsO4 |
P011 | Arsenic oxide As2 O5 |
P012 | Arsenic trioxide |
P013 | Barium cyanide |
P015 | Beryllium |
P029 | Copper cyanide Cu(CN) |
P074 | Nickel cyanide Ni(CN)2 |
P087 | Osmium tetroxide |
P099 | Potassium silver cyanide |
P104 | Silver cyanide |
P113 | Thallic oxide |
P114 | Thallium (l) selenite |
P115 | Thallium (l) sulfate |
P119 | Ammonium vanadate |
P120 | Vanadium oxide V2 O5 |
P121 | Zinc cyanide. |
U032 | Calcium chromate. |
U145 | Lead phosphate. |
U151 | Mercury. |
U204 | Selenious acid. |
U205 | Selenium disulfide. |
U216 | Thallium (I) chloride. |
U217 | Thallium (I) nitrate. |
1 A combustion unit is defined as any thermal technology subject to Section 264, subsection part O; Section 265, subsection O; and/or 266, subsection H
Section of RCRA | Coverage | Final regulation | Final rule |
Subtitle C | Overview and definitions | 40 CFR part 260 | Rule 23 § 260 |
3001 | Identification and listing of hazardous waste | 40 CFR part 261 | Rule 23 § 261 |
3002 | Generators of hazardous waste | 40 CFR part 262 | Rule 23 § 262 |
3003 | Transporters of hazardous waste | 40 CFR part 263 | Rule 23 § 263 |
3004 | Standards for HWM facilities | 40 CFR parts 264, 265, 266, and 267 | Rule 23 §§ 264, 265, and 266 |
3005 | Permit requirements for HWM facilities | 40 CFR parts 270 and 124 | Rule 23 §270, and Rule No. 8 |
3006 | Guidelines for State programs | 40 CFR part 271 | |
3010 | Preliminary notification (public notice) 45 FR of HWM activity 12746 February 26, 1980 | Rule 23 § 262 | |
The following definitions apply to Section 270. Terms not defined in this section have the meaning given by Section 260.10.
"Administrator" means the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency, or an authorized representative.
"Application" means the EPA standard national forms for applying for a permit, including any additions, revisions or modifications to the forms; or forms approved by EPA for use in approved States, including any approved modifications or revisions. Application also includes the information required by the Director under §§ 270.14 through 270.29 (contents of Part B of the hazardous waste permit application).
"Approved program or approved State" means a State which has been approved or authorized by EPA under 40 CFR part 271.
"Aquifer" means a geological formation, group of formations, or part of a formation that is capable of yielding a significant amount of water to a well or spring.
"Closure" means the act of securing a Hazardous Waste Management facility pursuant to the requirements of Section 264 of this rule.
"Component" means any constituent part of a unit or any group of constituent parts of a unit which are assembled to perform a specific function (e.g., a pump seal, pump, kiln liner, kiln thermocouple).
"Corrective Action Management Unit" or "CAMU" means an area within a facility that is desigated by the Director under § 264 Subsection S for the purpose of implementing corrective action requirements under § 264.101, or the Arkansas Remedial Action Trust Fund Act. A CAMU shall only be used for the management of remediation wastes pursuant to implementing such corrective action requirements at the facility.
"CWA" means the federal Clean Water Act (formerly referred to as the Federal Water Pollution Control Act or Federal Water Pollution Control Act amendments of 1972) Pub. L. 92-500, as amended by Pub. L. 92-217 and Pub. L. 95-576; 33 U.S.C. 1251 et seq.
"Director" means the Director of the Division of Environmental Quality, or an authorized representative. When the Division has not yet received federal authorization for a particular rule and there is an EPA administered program, "Director" means the Regional Administrator. When there is an approved State program, "Director" normally means the State Director. In some circumstances, however, EPA retains the authority to take certain actions even when there is an approved State program. In such cases, the term "Director" means the Regional Administrator and not the State Director.
"Disposal" means the discharge, deposit, injection, dumping, spilling, leaking, or placing of any hazardous waste into or on any land or water so that such hazardous waste or any constituent thereof may enter the environment or be emitted into the air or discharged into any waters, including ground water.
"Disposal facility" means a facility or part of a facility at which hazardous waste is intentionally placed into or on the land or water, and at which hazardous waste will remain after closure. The term disposal facility does not include a corrective action management unit into which remediation wastes are placed.
"Draft permit" means a document prepared under 40 CFR 124.6 indicating the Director's tentative decision to issue or deny, modify, revoke and reissue, terminate, or reissue a permit. A notice of intent to terminate a permit, and a notice of intent to deny a permit, as discussed in § 124.5, are types of draft permits. A denial of a request for modification, revocation and reissuance, or termination, as discussed in § 124.5 is not a "draft permit." A proposed permit is not a draft permit.
"Elementary neutralization unit" means a device which:
"Emergency permit" means an HWM permit issued in accordance with § 270.61.
"Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)" means the United States Environmental Protection Agency.
"EPA" means the United States Environmental Protection Agency.
"Facility mailing list" means the mailing list for a facility maintained by the Division in accordance with 40 CFR 124.10(c)(1)(ix) and § 270.7 of this rule.
"Facility or activity" means any HWM facility or any other facility or activity (including land or appurtenances thereto) that is subject to regulation under the RCRA program.
"Federal, State and local approvals or permits necessary to begin physical construction" means permits and approvals required under Federal, State or local hazardous waste control statutes, regulations, rules or ordinances.
"Final authorization" means approval by EPA of a State program which has met the requirements of section 3006(b) of RCRA and the applicable requirements of 40 CFR Part 271, Subpart A.
"Functionally equivalent component" means a component which performs the same function or measurement and which meets or exceeds the performance specifications of another component.
"Generator" means any person, by site location, whose act, or process produces "hazardous waste" identified or listed in Section 261 of this rule.
"Ground water" means water below the land surface in a zone of saturation.
"Hazardous Waste Management Facility (HWM facility)" means all contiguous land, and structures, other appurtenances, and improvements on the land, used for treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous waste. A facility may consist of several treatment, storage, or disposal operational units (for example, one or more landfills, surface impoundments, or combinations of them).
"HWM facility" means Hazardous Waste Management facility.
"Injection well" means a well into which fluids are being injected.
"In operation" means a facility which is treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous waste.
"Interim authorization" means approval by EPA of a State hazardous waste program which has met the requirements of section 3006(g)(2) of RCRA and applicable requirements of 40 CFR part 271, subpart B.
"Major facility" means any facility or activity classified as such by the Director, or, in the case of approved State programs, the Director in conjunction with the State Director.
"Manifest" means the shipping document originated and signed by the generator which contains the information required by Subsection B of Section 262.
"National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System" means the national program for issuing, modifying, revoking and reissuing, terminating, monitoring and enforcing permits, and imposing and enforcing pretreatment requirements, under sections 307, 402, 318, and 405 of the federal Clean Water Act. The term includes an approved program.
"NPDES" means National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System.
"New HWM facility" means a Hazardous Waste Management facility which began operation or for which construction commenced after November 19, 1980.
"Off-site" means any site which is not on-site.
"On-site" means on the same or geographically contiguous property which may be divided by public or private right(s)-of-way, provided the entrance and exit between the properties is at a cross-roads intersection, and access is by crossing as opposed to going along, the right(s)-of-way. Non-contiguous properties owned by the same person but connected by a right-of-way which the person controls and to which the public does not have access, is also considered on-site property.
"Permit" means an authorization, license, or equivalent control document issued by EPA or an approved State to implement the requirements of this Section and 40 CFR Parts 271 and 124. Permit includes permit by rule (§ 270.60), emergency permit (§ 270.61) and standardized permit (subsection J of this section). Permit does not include RCRA interim status (subsection G of this section), or any permit which has not been the subject of final agency action, such as a draft permit or a proposed permit.
"Permit-by-rule" means a provision of these rules stating that a facility or activity is deemed to have an HWM permit if it meets the requirements of the provision.
"Phase I" means that phase of the Federal hazardous waste management program commencing on the effective date of the last of the following to be initially promulgated: 40 CFR Parts 260, 261, 262, 263, 265, 270 and 271. Promulgation of Phase I refers to promulgation of the rules necessary for Phase I to begin.
"Phase II" means that phase of Federal hazardous waste management program commencing on the effective date of the first subpart of 40 CFR part 264, subparts F through R to be initially promulgated. Promulgation of Phase II refers to promulgation of the rules necessary for Phase II to begin.
"Physical construction" means excavation, movement of earth, erection of forms or structures, or similar activity to prepare an HWM facility to accept hazardous waste.
"POTW" means publicly owned treatment works.
"Publicly owned treatment works (POTW)" means any device or system used in the treatment (including recycling and reclamation) of municipal sewage or industrial wastes of a liquid nature which is owned by a State or municipality. This definition includes sewers, pipes, or other conveyances only if they convey wastewater to a POTW providing treatment.
"RCRA" means the federal Solid Waste Disposal Act as amended by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 ( Pub. L. 94-580, as amended by Pub. L. 95-609 and Pub. L. 96-482, 42 U.S.C. 6901 et seq.)
"Regional Administrator" means the Regional Administrator of the appropriate Regional Office of the Environmental Protection Agency [EPA Region VI] or the authorized representative of the Regional Administrator.
"Remedial Action Plan" (RAP) means a special form of RCRA permit that a facility owner or operator may obtain instead of a permit issued under §§ 270.3 through 270.66, to authorize the treatment, storage or disposal of hazardous remediation waste (as defined in § 260.10 of this rule) at a remediation waste management site.
"Schedule of compliance" means a schedule of remedial measures included in a permit, including an enforceable sequence of interim requirements (for example, actions, operations, or milestone events) leading to compliance with the Act and rules.
"SDWA" means the federal Safe Drinking Water Act ( Pub. L. 95-523, as amended by Pub. L. 95-1900; 42 U.S.C. 3001 et seq.).
"Standardized permit" means a RCRA permit issued under 40 CFR Part 124, subsection G, Rule No. 8, and Subsection J of this Section authorizing the facility owner or operator to manage hazardous waste. The standardized permit may have two parts: a uniform portion issued in all cases and a supplemental portion issued at the Director's discretion.
"State" means any of the 50 States, the District of Columbia, Guam, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
"State Director" means the chief administrative officer of any State agency operating an approved program, or the delegated representative of the State Director. If responsibility is divided among two or more State agencies, State Director means the chief administrative officer of the State agency authorized to perform the particular procedure or function to which reference is made.
"State/EPA Agreement" means an agreement between the Regional Administrator and the Arkansas Division of Environmental Quality which coordinates EPA and State activities, responsibilities and programs.
"Storage" means the holding of hazardous waste for a temporary period, at the end of which the hazardous waste is treated, disposed, or stored elsewhere.
"Transfer facility" means any transportation-related facility including loading docks, parking areas, storage areas and other similar areas where shipments of hazardous waste are held during the normal course of transportation.
"Transporter" means a person engaged in the off-site transportation of hazardous waste by air, rail, highway or water.
"Treatment" means any method, technique, or process, including neutralization, designed to change the physical, chemical, or biological character or composition of any hazardous waste so as to neutralize such wastes, or so as to recover energy or material resources from the waste, or so as to render such waste non-hazardous, or less hazardous; safer to transport, store, or dispose of; or amenable for recovery, amenable for storage, or reduced in volume.
"UIC" means the Underground Injection Control Program under Part C of the federal Safe Drinking Water Act, including an approved program.
"Underground injection" means a well injection.
"Underground source of drinking water (USDW)" means an aquifer or its portion:
"USDW" means underground source of drinking water.
"Wastewater treatment unit" means a device which:
The following is a list of Federal laws that may apply to the issuance of permits under these rules. When any of these laws is applicable, its procedures must be followed. When the applicable law requires consideration or adoption of particular permit conditions or requires the denial of a permit, those requirements also must be followed.
The Director shall prepare quarterly and annual reports as detailed below. When the State is the permit-issuing authority, the Director shall submit any reports required under this section to the Regional Administrator. When EPA is the permit-issuing authority, the Regional Administrator shall submit any report required under this section to EPA Headquarters. For purposes of this section only, HWM permittees shall include interim status facilities, when appropriate.
Quarters Covered by Reports on Noncompliance by Major Dischargers
[Date for completion of reports]
January, February, March1 | May 31 |
April, May, June1 | August 31 |
July, August, September1 | November 30 |
October, November, December1 | February 28 |
1 Reports must be made available to the public for inspection and copying on this date.
The applicant shall submit to the Division documentation of its good faith effort to identify all such contiguous landholders and tenants and proof of notification within thirty (30) days of the application.
1 described in subparagraph (7) above . The notice shall provide:
(Editor's Note: This is a more stringent State requirement of the Arkansas Hazardous Waste Management Act (§ 8-7-216(b)). Whereas the federal regulations allow a facility to qualify for interim status by submitting a Part A application by November 19, 1980, Arkansas facilities must have applied on or prior to September 14, 1979 in order to have qualified for interim status under the RCRA regulations.)
Note: DEQ does not require specific assignments or delegations of authority to responsible corporate officers identified in § 270.11(a)(1)(i). The Division will presume that these responsible corporate officers have the requisite authority to sign permit applications unless the corporation has notified the Director to the contrary. Corporate procedures governing authority to sign permit applications may provide for assignment or delegation to applicable corporate positions under § 270.11(a)(1)(ii) rather than to specific individuals.
I certify under penalty of law that this document and all attachments were prepared under my direction or supervision according to a system designed to assure that qualified personnel properly gather and evaluate the information submitted. Based on my inquiry of the person or persons who manage the system, or those persons directly responsible for gathering the information, the information submitted is, to the best of my knowledge and belief, true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment for knowing violations.
Part A of the hazardous waste management permit application shall include the following information:
[Comment: If the county or election district is not listed in appendix VI of Section 264, no further information is required to demonstrate compliance with § 264.18(a).]
[Comment: EPA's "The Guidance Manual for the Location Standards" provides greater detail on the content of each type of seismic investigation and the appropriate conditions under which each approach or a combination of approaches would be used.]
[Comment: Where maps for the National Flood Insurance Program produced by the Federal Insurance Administration (FIA) of the Federal Emergency Management Agency are available, they will normally be determinative of whether a facility is located within or outside of the 100-year floodplain. However, where the FIA map excludes an area (usually areas of the floodplain less than 200 feet in width), these areas must be considered and a determination made as to whether they are in the 100-year floodplain. Where FIA maps are not available for a proposed facility location, the owner or operator must use equivalent mapping techniques to determine whether the facility is within the 100-year floodplain, and if so located, what the 100-year flood elevation would be.]
Note: For large HWM facilities the Division will allow the use of other scales on a case-by-case basis.
Except as otherwise provided in § 264.170, owners or operators of facilities that store containers of hazardous waste must provide the following additional information:
Except as otherwise provided in § 264.190, owners and operators of facilities that use tanks to store or treat hazardous waste must provide the following additional information:
Except as otherwise provided in § 264.1, owners and operators of facilities that store, treat or dispose of hazardous waste in surface impoundments must provide the following additional information:
Except as otherwise provided in § 264.1, owners and operators of facilities that store or treat hazardous waste in waste piles must provide the following additional information:
Except as § 264.340 of this rule and § 270.19(e) provide otherwise, owners and operators of facilities that incinerate hazardous waste must fulfill the requirements of (a), (b), or (c) of this section.
Except as otherwise provided in § 264.1, owners and operators of facilities that use land treatment to dispose of hazardous waste must provide the following additional information:
Except as otherwise provided in § 264.1, owners and operators of facilities that dispose of hazardous waste in landfills must provide the following additional information:
When an owner or operator of a cement kiln, or lightweight aggregate kiln, solid fuel boiler, liquid fuel boiler, or hydrochloric acid production furnace becomes subject to RCRA permit requirements after October 12, 2005, or when an owner or operator of an existing cement kiln, lightweight aggregate kiln, solid fuel boiler, liquid fuel boiler, or hydrochloric acid production furnace demonstrates compliance with the air emission standards and limitations in 40 CFR Part 63, subpart EEE, (i.e., by conducting a comprehensive performance test and submitting a Notification of Compliance under 40 CFR Part 63.1207(j) and 63.121(d) documenting compliance with all applicable requirements of part 63, subpart EEE,), the requirements of this section do not apply. The requirements of this section do apply, however, if the Director determines certain provisions are necessary to ensure compliance with §§ 266.102(e)(1) and 266.102(e)(2)(iii) of this Rule if you elect to comply with § 270.235(a)(1)(i) to minimize emissions of toxic compounds from startup, shutdown, and malfunction events; or if you are an area source and elect to comply with the §§ 266.105, 266.106, and 266.107 standards and associated requirements for particulate matter, hydrogen chloride and chlorine gas, and non-mercury metals; or the Director determines certain provisions apply, on a case-by-case basis, for purposes of information collection in accordance with §§ 270.10(k), 270.10(n), 270.32(b)(2), and 270.32(b)(3).
Except as otherwise provided in § 264.600, owners and operators of facilities that treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste in miscellaneous units must provide the following additional information:
Except as otherwise provided in § 264.1, owners and operators of facilities that have process vents to which Subsection AA of Section 264 applies must provide the following additional information:
Except as otherwise provided in § 264.1, owners and operators of facilities that have equipment to which Subsection BB of Section 264 applies must provide the following additional information:
Except as otherwise provided by § 264.1 of this rule, owners and operators of hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facilities that collect, store, or treat hazardous waste on drip pads must provide the following additional information:
For post-closure permits, the owner or operator is required to submit only the information specified in §§270.14(b)(1), (4), (5), (6), (11), (13), (14), (16), (18) and (19), (c), and (d), unless the Director determines that additional information from §§ 270.14, 270.16, 270.17, 270.18, 270.20, or 270.21 is necessary. The owner or operator is required to submit the same information when an alternative authority is used in lieu of a post-closure permit as provided in § 270.1(c)(7).
The Director may, pursuant to the procedures in 40 CFR 124 (as incorporated by reference at § 3(b) of this Rule) and APC&EC Rule No. 8, deny the permit application either in its entirety or as to the active life of a hazardous waste management facility or unit only.
The following conditions apply to all HWM permits, and shall be incorporated into the permits either expressly or by reference. If incorporated by reference, a specific citation to these rules must be given in the permit.
All permits shall specify:
When the Director receives any information (for example, inspects the facility, receives information submitted by the permittee as required in the permit (see § 270.30), receives a request for revocation and reissuance under 40 CFR 124.5 or conducts a review of the permit file), he or she may determine whether one or more of the causes listed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section for modification, or revocation and reissuance or both exist. If cause exists, the Director may modify or revoke and reissue the permit accordingly, subject to the limitations of paragraph (c) of this section, and may request an updated application if necessary. When a permit is modified, only the conditions subject to modification are reopened. If a permit is revoked and reissued, the entire permit is reopened and subject to revision and the permit is reissued for a new term. (See 40 CFR 124.5(c)(2).) If cause does not exist under this section, the Director shall not modify or revoke and reissue the permit, except on request of the permittee. If a permit modification is requested by the permittee, the Director shall approve or deny the request according to the procedures of Section 270.42. If a permit modification is requested by the permittee, the Director shall approve or deny the request according to the procedures of § 270.42, or § 270.320 and 40 CFR Part 124, Subpart G. Otherwise, a draft permit must be prepared and other procedures in 40 CFR 124 and APC&EC Rule No. 8 followed.
Appendix I to § 270.42 -- Classification of Permit Modifications
Modifications | Class |
A. General Permit Provisions | |
1. Administrative and informational changes | 1 |
2. Correction of typographical errors | 1 |
3. Equipment replacement or upgrading with functionally equivalent components (e.g., pipes, valves, pumps, conveyors, controls) | 1 |
4. Changes in the frequency of or procedures for monitoring, reporting, sampling, or maintenance activities by the permittee: | |
a. To provide for more frequent monitoring, reporting, sampling, or maintenance | 1 |
b. Other changes | 2 |
5. Schedule of compliance: | |
a. Changes in interim compliance dates, with prior approval of the Director | 11 |
b. Extension of final compliance date | 3 |
6. Changes in expiration date of permit to allow earlier permit termination, with prior approval of the Director | 11 |
7. Changes in ownership or operational control of a facility, provided the procedures of §270.40(b) are followed | 11 |
8. Changes to remove permit conditions that are no longer applicable (i.e., because the standards upon which they are based are no longer applicable to the facility). | 11 |
9. Changes to remove permit conditions applicable to a unit excluded under the provisions of §261.4. | 11 |
10. Changes in the expiration date of a permit issued to a facility at which all units are excluded under the provisions of §261.4. | 11 |
B. General Facility Standards | |
1. Changes to waste sampling or analysis methods: | |
a. To conform with agency guidance or rules | 1 |
b. To incorporate changes associated with F039 (multi-source leachate) sampling or analysis methods | 1 |
c. To incorporate changes associated with underlying hazardous constituents in ignitable or corrosive wastes | 11 |
d. Other changes | 2 |
2. Changes to analytical quality assurance/control plan: | |
a. To conform with agency guidance or rules | 1 |
b. Other changes | 2 |
3. Changes in procedures for maintaining the operating record | 1 |
4. Changes in frequency or content of inspection schedules | 2 |
5. Changes in the training plan: | |
a. That affect the type or decrease the amount of training given to employees | 2 |
b. Other changes | 1 |
6. Contingency plan: | |
a. Changes in emergency procedures (i.e., spill or release response procedures) | 2 |
b. Replacement with functionally equivalent equipment, upgrade, or relocate emergency equipment listed | 1 |
c. Removal of equipment from emergency equipment list | 2 |
d. Changes in name, address, or phone number of coordinators or other persons or agencies identified in the plan | 1 |
7. Construction quality assurance plan: | |
a. Changes that the CQA officer certifies in the operating record will provide equivalent or better certainty that the unit components meet the design specifications | 1 |
b. Other changes | 2 |
Note: When a permit modification (such as introduction of a new unit) requires a change in facility plans or other general facility standards, that change shall be reviewed under the same procedures as the permit modification. | |
C. Ground-Water Protection | |
1. Changes to wells: | |
a. Changes in the number, location, depth, or design of upgradient or downgradient wells of permitted ground-water monitoring system | 2 |
b. Replacement of an existing well that has been damaged or rendered inoperable, without change to location, design, or depth of the well | 1 |
2. Changes in ground-water sampling or analysis procedures or monitoring schedule, with prior approval of the Director | 11 |
3. Changes in statistical procedure for determining whether a statistically significant change in ground-water quality between upgradient and downgradient wells has occurred, with prior approval of the Director | 11 |
4. Changes in point of compliance | 2 |
5. Changes in indicator parameters, hazardous constituents, or concentration limits (including ACLs): | |
a. As specified in the groundwater protection standard | 3 |
b. As specified in the detection monitoring program | 2 |
6. Changes to a detection monitoring program as required by §264.98(h), unless otherwise specified in this appendix | 2 |
7. Compliance monitoring program: | |
a. Addition of compliance monitoring program as required by §§264.98(g)(4) and 264.99 | 3 |
b. Changes to a compliance monitoring program as required by §264.99(j), unless otherwise specified in this appendix | 2 |
8. Corrective action program: | |
a. Addition of a corrective action program as required by §§264.99(h)(2) and 264.100 | 3 |
b. Changes to a corrective action program as required by §264.100(h), unless otherwise specified in this appendix | 2 |
D. Closure | |
1. Changes to the closure plan: | |
a. Changes in estimate of maximum extent of operations or maximum inventory of waste on-site at any time during the active life of the facility, with prior approval of the Director | 11 |
b. Changes in the closure schedule for any unit, changes in the final closure schedule for the facility, or extension of the closure period, with prior approval of the Director | 11 |
c. Changes in the expected year of final closure, where other permit conditions are not changed, with prior approval of the Director | 11 |
d. Changes in procedures for decontamination of facility equipment or structures, with prior approval of the Director | 11 |
e. Changes in approved closure plan resulting from unexpected events occurring during partial or final closure, unless otherwise specified in this appendix | 2 |
f. Extension of the closure period to allow a landfill, surface impoundment or land treatment unit to receive non-hazardous wastes after final receipt of hazardous wastes under §264.113 (d) and (e) | 2 |
2. Creation of a new landfill unit as part of closure | 3 |
3. Addition of the following new units to be used temporarily for closure activities: | |
a. Surface impoundments | 3 |
b. Incinerators | 3 |
c. Waste piles that do not comply with §264.250(c) | 3 |
d. Waste piles that comply with §264.250(c) | 2 |
e. Tanks or containers (other than specified below) | 2 |
f. Tanks used for neutralization, dewatering, phase separation, or component separation, with prior approval of the Director | 11 |
g. Staging piles | 2 |
E. Post-Closure | |
1. Changes in name, address, or phone number of contact in post-closure plan | 1 |
2. Extension of post-closure care period | 2 |
3. Reduction in the post-closure care period | 3 |
4. Changes to the expected year of final closure, where other permit conditions are not changed | 1 |
5. Changes in post-closure plan necessitated by events occurring during the active life of the facility, including partial and final closure | 2 |
F. Containers | |
1. Modification or addition of container units: | |
a. Resulting in greater than 25% increase in the facility's container storage capacity, except as provided in F(1)(c) and F(4)(a) below | 3 |
b. Resulting in up to 25% increase in the facility's container storage capacity, except as provided in F(1)(c) and F(4)(a) below | 2 |
c. Or treatment processes necessary to treat wastes that are restricted from land disposal to meet some or all of the applicable treatment standards or to treat wastes to satisfy (in whole or in part) the standard of "use of practically available technology that yields the greatest environmental benefit" contained in §268.8(a)(2)(ii), with prior approval of the Director. This modification may also involve addition of new waste codes or narrative descriptions of wastes. It is not applicable to dioxin-containing wastes (F020, 021, 022, 023, 026, 027, and 028) | 11 |
2. | |
a. Modification of a container unit without increasing the capacity of the unit | 2 |
b. Addition of a roof to a container unit without alteration of the containment system | 1 |
3. Storage of different wastes in containers, except as provided in (F)(4) below: | |
a. That require additional or different management practices from those authorized in the permit | 3 |
b. That do not require additional or different management practices from those authorized in the permit | 2 |
Note: See §270.42(g) for modification procedures to be used for the management of newly listed or identified wastes. | |
4. Storage or treatment of different wastes in containers: a. That require addition of units or change in treatment process or management standards, provided that the wastes are restricted from land disposal and are to be treated to meet some or all of the applicable treatment standards, or that are to be treated to satisfy (in whole or in part) the standard of "use of practically available technology that yields the greatest environmental benefit" contained in §268.8(a)(2)(ii). This modification is not applicable to dioxin-containing wastes (F020, 021, 022, 023, 026, 027, and 028) | 11 |
b. That do not require the addition of units or a change in the treatment process or management standards, and provided that the units have previously received wastes of the same type (e.g., incinerator scrubber water). This modification is not applicable to dioxin-containing wastes (F020, 021, 022, 023, 026, 027, and 028) | 11 |
G. Tanks | |
1. | |
a. Modification or addition of tank units resulting in greater than 25% increase in the facility's tank capacity, except as provided in G(1)(c), G(1)(d), and G(1)(e) below | 3 |
b. Modification or addition of tank units resulting in up to 25% increase in the facility's tank capacity, except as provided in G(1)(d) and G(1)(e) below | 2 |
c. Addition of a new tank that will operate for more than 90 days using any of the following physical or chemical treatment technologies: neutralization, dewatering, phase separation, or component separation | 2 |
d. After prior approval of the Director, addition of a new tank that will operate for up to 90 days using any of the following physical or chemical treatment technologies: neutralization, dewatering, phase separation, or component separation | 11 |
e. Modification or addition of tank units or treatment processes necessary to treat wastes that are restricted from land disposal to meet some or all of the applicable treatment standards or to treat wastes to satisfy (in whole or in part) the standard of "use of practically available technology that yields the greatest environmental benefit" contained in §268.8(a)(2)(ii), with prior approval of the Director. This modification may also involve addition of new waste codes. It is not applicable to dioxin-containing wastes (F020, 021, 022, 023, 026, 027, and 028) | 11 |
2. Modification of a tank unit or secondary containment system without increasing the capacity of the unit | 2 |
3. Replacement of a tank with a tank that meets the same design standards and has a capacity within ±10% of the replaced tank provided | 1 |
-The capacity difference is no more than 1500 gallons, | |
-The facility's permitted tank capacity is not increased, and | |
-The replacement tank meets the same conditions in the permit. | |
4. Modification of a tank management practice | 2 |
5. Management of different wastes in tanks: | |
a. That require additional or different management practices, tank design, different fire protection specifications, or significantly different tank treatment process from that authorized in the permit, except as provided in (G)(5)(c) below | 3 |
b. That do not require additional or different management practices, tank design, different fire protection specifications, or significantly different tank treatment process than authorized in the permit, except as provided in (G)(5)(d) | 2 |
c. That require addition of units or change in treatment processes or management standards, provided that the wastes are restricted from land disposal and are to be treated to meet some or all of the applicable treatment standards or that are to be treated to satisfy (in whole or in part) the standard of "use of practically available technology that yields the greatest environmental benefit" contained in §268.8(a)(2)(ii). The modification is not applicable to dioxin-containing wastes (F020, 021, 022, 023, 026, 027, and 028) | 11 |
d. That do not require the addition of units or a change in the treatment process or management standards, and provided that the units have previously received wastes of the same type (e.g., incinerator scrubber water). This modification is not applicable to dioxin-containing wastes (F020, 021, 022, 023, 026, 027, and 028) | 1 |
Note: See §270.42(g) for modification procedures to be used for the management of newly lilsted or identified wastes. | |
H. Surface Impoundments | |
1. Modification or addition of surface impoundment units that result in increasing the facility's surface impoundment storage or treatment capacity | 3 |
2. Replacement of a surface impoundment unit | 3 |
3. Modification of a surface impoundment unit without increasing the facility's surface impoundment storage or treatment capacity and without modifying the unit's liner, leak detection system, or leachate collection system | 2 |
4. Modification of a surface impoundment management practice | 2 |
5. Treatment, storage, or disposal of different wastes in surface impoundments: | |
a. That require additional or different management practices or different design of the liner or leak detection system than authorized in the permit | 3 |
b. That do not require additional or different management practices or different design of the liner or leak detection system than authorized in the permit | 2 |
c. That are wastes restricted from land disposal that meet the applicable treatment standards or that are treated to satisfy the standard of "use of practically available technology that yields the greatest environmental benefit" contained in §269.8(a)(2)(ii), and provided that the unit meets the minimum technological requirements stated in §268.5(h)(2). This modification is not applicable to dioxin-containing wastes (F020, 021, 022, 023, 026, 027, and 028) | 1 |
d. That are residues from wastewater treatment or incineration, provided that disposal occurs in a unit that meets the minimum technological requirements stated in §268.5(h)(2), and provided further that the surface impoundment has previously received wastes of the same type (for example, incinerator scrubber water). This modification is not applicable to dioxin-containing wastes (F020, 021, 022, 023, 026, 027, and 028) | 1 |
6. Modifications of unconstructed units to comply with §§264.221(c), 264.222, 264.223, and 264.226(d) | 11 |
7. Changes in response action plan: | |
a. Increase in action leakage rate | 3 |
b. Change in a specific response reducing its frequency or effectiveness | 3 |
c. Other changes | 2 |
Note: See §270.42(g) for modification procedures to be used for the management of newly listed or identified wastes | |
I. Enclosed Waste Piles. For all waste piles except those complying with §264.250(c), modifications are treated the same as for a landfill. The following modifications are applicable only to waste piles complying with §264.250(c). | |
1. Modification or addition of waste pile units: | |
a. Resulting in greater than 25% increase in the facility's waste pile storage or treatment capacity | 3 |
b. Resulting in up to 25% increase in the facility's waste pile storage or treatment capacity | 2 |
2. Modification of waste pile unit without increasing the capacity of the unit | 2 |
3. Replacement of a waste pile unit with another waste pile unit of the same design and capacity and meeting all waste pile conditions in the permit | 1 |
4. Modification of a waste pile management practice | 2 |
5. Storage or treatment of different wastes in waste piles: | |
a. That require additional or different management practices or different design of the unit | 3 |
b. That do not require additional or different management practices or different design of the unit | 2 |
6. Conversion of an enclosed waste pile to a containment building unit | 2 |
Note: See §270.42(g) for modification procedures to be used for the management of newly listed or identified wastes. | |
J. Landfills and Unenclosed Waste Piles | |
1. Modification or addition of landfill units that result in increasing the facility's disposal capacity | 3 |
2. Replacement of a landfill | 3 |
3. Addition or modification of a liner, leachate collection system, leachate detection system, run-off control, or final cover system | 3 |
4. Modification of a landfill unit without changing a liner, leachate collection system, leachate detection system, run-off control, or final cover system | 2 |
5. Modification of a landfill management practice | 2 |
6. Landfill different wastes: | |
a. That require additional or different management practices, different design of the liner, leachate collection system, or leachate detection system | 3 |
b. That do not require additional or different management practices, different design of the liner, leachate collection system, or leachate detection system | 2 |
c. That are wastes restricted from land disposal that meet the applicable treatment standards or that are treated to satisfy the standard of "use of practically available technology that yields the greatest environmental benefit" contained in §268.8(a)(2)(ii), and provided that the landfill unit meets the minimum technological requirements stated in §268.5(h)(2). This modification is not applicable to dioxin-containing wastes (F020, 021, 022, 023, 026, 027, and 028) | 1 |
d. That are residues from wastewater treatment or incineration, provided that disposal occurs in a landfill unit that meets the minimum technological requirements stated in §268.5(h)(2), and provided further that the landfill has previously received wastes of the same type (for example, incinerator ash). This modification is not applicable to dioxin-containing wastes (F020, 021, 022, 023, 026, 027, and 028) | 1 |
7. Modifications of unconstructed units to comply with §§264.251(c), 264.252, 264.253, 264.254(c), 264.301(c), 264.302, 264.303(c), and 264.304 | 11 |
8. Changes in response action plan: | |
a. Increase in action leakage rate | 3 |
b. Change in a specific response reducing its frequency or effectiveness | 3 |
c. Other changes | 2 |
Note: See §270.42(g) for modification procedures to be used for the management of newly listed or identified wastes. | |
K. Land Treatment | |
1. Lateral expansion of or other modification of a land treatment unit to increase areal extent | 3 |
2. Modification of run-on control system | 2 |
3. Modify run-off control system | 3 |
4. Other modifications of land treatment unit component specifications or standards required in permit | 2 |
5. Management of different wastes in land treatment units: | |
a. That require a change in permit operating conditions or unit design specifications | 3 |
b. That do not require a change in permit operating conditions or unit design specifications | 2 |
Note: See §270.42(g) for modification procedures to be used for the management of newly listed or identified wastes | |
6. Modification of a land treatment unit management practice to: | |
a. Increase rate or change method of waste application | 3 |
b. Decrease rate of waste application | 1 |
7. Modification of a land treatment unit management practice to change measures of pH or moisture content, or to enhance microbial or chemical reactions | 2 |
8. Modification of a land treatment unit management practice to grow food chain crops, to add to or replace existing permitted crops with different food chain crops, or to modify operating plans for distribution of animal feeds resulting from such crops | 3 |
9. Modification of operating practice due to detection of releases from the land treatment unit pursuant to §264.278(g)(2) | 3 |
10. Changes in the unsaturated zone monitoring system, resulting in a change to the location, depth, number of sampling points, or replace unsaturated zone monitoring devices or components of devices with devices or components that have specifications different from permit requirements | 3 |
11. Changes in the unsaturated zone monitoring system that do not result in a change to the location, depth, number of sampling points, or that replace unsaturated zone monitoring devices or components of devices with devices or components having specifications different from permit requirements | 2 |
12. Changes in background values for hazardous constituents in soil and soil-pore liquid | 2 |
13. Changes in sampling, analysis, or statistical procedure | 2 |
14. Changes in land treatment demonstration program prior to or during the demonstration | 2 |
15. Changes in any condition specified in the permit for a land treatment unit to reflect results of the land treatment demonstration, provided performance standards are met, and the Director's prior approval has been received | 11 |
16. Changes to allow a second land treatment demonstration to be conducted when the results of the first demonstration have not shown the conditions under which the wastes can be treated completely, provided the conditions for the second demonstration are substantially the same as the conditions for the first demonstration and have received the prior approval of the Director | 11 |
17. Changes to allow a second land treatment demonstration to be conducted when the results of the first demonstration have not shown the conditions under which the wastes can be treated completely, where the conditions for the second demonstration are not substantially the same as the conditions for the first demonstration | 3 |
18. Changes in vegetative cover requirements for closure | 2 |
L. Incinerators, Boilers, and Industrial Furnaces: | |
1. Changes to increase by more than 25% any of the following limits authorized in the permit: A thermal feed rate limit, a feedstream feed rate limit, a chlorine/chloride feed rate limit, a metal feed rate limit, or an ash feed rate limit. The Director will require a new trial burn to substantiate compliance with the regulatory performance standards unless this demonstration can be made through other means | 3 |
2. Changes to increase by up to 25% any of the following limits authorized in the permit: A thermal feed rate limit, a feedstream feed rate limit, a chlorine/chloride feed rate limit, a metal feed rate limit, or an ash feed rate limit. The Director will require a new trial burn to substantiate compliance with the regulatory performance standards unless this demonstration can be made through other means | 2 |
3. Modification of an incinerator, boiler, or industrial furnace unit by changing the internal size or geometry of the primary or secondary combustion units, by adding a primary or secondary combustion unit, by substantially changing the design of any component used to remove HCl/Cl2, metals, or particulate from the combustion gases, or by changing other features of the incinerator, boiler, or industrial furnace that could affect its capability to meet the regulatory performance standards. The Director will require a new trial burn to substantiate compliance with the regulatory performance standards unless this demonstration can be made through other means | 3 |
4. Modification of an incinerator, boiler, or industrial furnace unit in a manner that would not likely affect the capability of the unit to meet the regulatory performance standards but which would change the operating conditions or monitoring requirements specified in the permit. The Director may require a new trial burn to demonstrate compliance with the regulatory performance standards | 2 |
5. Operating requirements: | |
a. Modification of the limits specified in the permit for minimum or maximum combustion gas temperature, minimum combustion gas residence time, oxygen concentration in the secondary combustion chamber, flue gas carbon monoxide and hydrocarbon concentration, maximum temperature at the inlet to the particulate matter emission control system, or operating parameters for the air pollution control system. The Director will require a new trial burn to substantiate compliance with the regulatory performance standards unless this demonstration can be made through other means | 3 |
b. Modification of any stack gas emission limits specified in the permit, or modification of any conditions in the permit concerning emergency shutdown or automatic waste feed cutoff procedures or controls | 3 |
c. Modification of any other operating condition or any inspection or recordkeeping requirement specified in the permit | 2 |
6. Burning different wastes: | |
a. If the waste contains a POHC that is more difficult to burn than authorized by the permit or if burning of the waste requires compliance with different regulatory performance standards than specified in the permit. The Director will require a new trial burn to substantiate compliance with the regulatory performance standards unless this demonstration can be made through other means | 3 |
b. If the waste does not contain a POHC that is more difficult to burn than authorized by the permit and if burning of the waste does not require compliance with different regulatory performance standards than specified in the permit | 2 |
Note: See §270.42(g) for modification procedures to be used for the management of newly listed or identified wastes | |
7. Shakedown and trial burn: | |
a. Modification of the trial burn plan or any of the permit conditions applicable during the shakedown period for determining operational readiness after construction, the trial burn period, or the period immediately following the trial burn | 2 |
b. Authorization of up to an additional 720 hours of waste burning during the shakedown period for determining operational readiness after construction, with the prior approval of the Director | 11 |
c. Changes in the operating requirements set in the permit for conducting a trial burn, provided the change is minor and has received the prior approval of the Director | 11 |
d. Changes in the ranges of the operating requirements set in the permit to reflect the results of the trial burn, provided the change is minor and has received the prior approval of the Director | 11 |
8. Substitution of an alternative type of nonhazardous waste fuel that is not specified in the permit | 1 |
9. Technology changes needed to meet standards under 40 CFR part 63 (Subpart EEE-National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants From Hazardous Waste Combustors), provided the procedures of §270.42(j) are followed. | 11 |
10. Changes to RCRA permit provisions needed to support transition to 40 CFR part 63 (Subpart EEE-National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants From Hazardous Waste Combustors), provided the procedures of §270.42(k) are followed. | |
M. Containment Buildings. | |
1. Modification or addition of containment building units: | |
a. Resulting in greater than 25% increase in the facility's containment building storage or treatment capacity | 3 |
b. Resulting in up to 25% increase in the facility's containment building storage or treatment capacity | 2 |
2. Modification of a containment building unit or secondary containment system without increasing the capacity of the unit | 2 |
3. Replacement of a containment building with a containment building that meets the same design standards provided: | |
a. The unit capacity is not increased | 1 |
b. The replacement containment building meets the same conditions in the permit | 1 |
4. Modification of a containment building management practice | 2 |
5. Storage or treatment of different wastes in containment buildings: | |
a. That require additional or different management practices | 3 |
b. That do not require additional or different management practices | 2 |
N. Corrective Action: | |
1. Approval of a corrective action management unit pursuant to §264.552 | 3 |
2. Approval of a temporary unit or time extension for a temporary unit pursuant to §264.553 | 2 |
3. Approval of a staging pile or staging pile operating term extension pursuant to §264.554 | 2 |
O. Burden Reduction | |
1. [Reserved] | |
2. Development of one contingency plan based on Integrated Contingency Plan Guidance pursuant to §264.52(b) | 1 |
3. Changes to recordkeeping and reporting requirements pursuant to: §§264.56(i), 264.343(a)(2), 264.1061(b)(1),(d), 264.1062(a)(2), 264.196(f), 264.100(g), and 264.113(e)(5) | 1 |
4. Changes to inspection frequency for tank systems pursuant to §264.195(b) | 1 |
5. Changes to detection and compliance monitoring program pursuant to §§264.98(d), (g)(2), and (g)(3), 264.99(f), and (g) |
FOOTNOTE: 1 Class 1 modifications requiring prior Divisional approval.
Notwithstanding any other provision of this section or Rule No. 8, the following shall be deemed to have an HWM permit if the conditions listed are met:
When an owner or operator of a hazardous waste incineration unit becomes subject to RCRA permit requirements after October 12, 2005, or when an owner or operator of an existing hazardous waste incineration unit demonstrates compliance with the air emission standards and limitations in 40 CFR Part 63, subpart EEE, (i.e., by conducting a comprehensive performance test and submitting a Notification of Compliance under 40 CFR Part 63.1207(j) and 63.1210(d) documenting compliance with all applicable requirements of 40 CFR Part 63, subpart EEE,), the requirements of this section do not apply, except those provisions the Director determines are necessary to ensure compliance with Sections 264.345(a) and 264.345(c) of this Rule if you elect to comply with § 270.235(a)(1)(i) to minimize emissions of toxic compounds from startup, shutdown, and malfunction events. Nevertheless, the Director may apply the provisions of this section, on a case-by-case basis, for purposes of information collection in accordance with §§ 270.10(k), 270.10(l), 270.32(b)(2), and 270.32(b)(3) of this Rule.
The permit may be issued either as a treatment or disposal permit covering only the field test or laboratory analyses, or as a two-phase facility permit covering the field tests, or laboratory analyses, and design, construction operation and maintenance of the land treatment unit.
The Director may issue a permit under this part to any Class I UIC well (see 40 CFR 144.6) injecting hazardous wastes. Any such permit shall apply and insure compliance with all applicable requirements of 40 CFR part 264, Subsection R (RCRA standards for wells), and shall be for a term not to exceed two years.
When an owner or operator of a cement kiln, lightweight aggregate kiln, solid fuel boiler, liquid fuel boiler, or hydrochloric acid production furnace becomes subject to RCRA permit requirements after October 12, 2005 or when an owner or operator of an existing cement kiln, lightweight aggregate kiln, solid fuel boiler, liquid fuel boiler, or hydrochloric acid production furnace demonstrates compliance with the air emission standards and limitations in 40 CFR Part 63, subpart EEE, (i.e., by conducting a comprehensive performance test and submitting a Notification of Compliance under 40 CFR Part 63.1207(j) and 63.1210(d) documenting compliance with all applicable requirements of 40 CFR Part 63, subpart EEE,), the requirements of this section do not apply. The requirements of this section do apply, however, if the Director determines certain provisions are necessary to ensure compliance with §§ 266.102(e)(1) and 266.102(e)(2)(iii) of this Rule if you elect to comply with § 270.235(a)(1)(i) to minimize emissions of toxic compounds from startup, shutdown, and malfunction events; or if you are an area source and elect to comply with the §§ 266.105, 266.106, and 266.107 standards and associated requirements for particulate matter, hydrogen chloride and chlorine gas, and non-mercury metals; or the Director determines certain provisions apply, on a case-by-case basis, for purposes of information collection in accordance with §§ 270.10(k), 270.10(l), 270.32(b)(2), and 270.32(b)(3) of this Rule.
RCRA standardized permits are special forms of permits for TSD owners or operators that:
Remedial Action Plans (RAPs) are special forms of permits that are regulated under subsection H of this Section.
Interim status terminates when:
This subpart is written in a special format to make it easier to understand the regulatory requirements. Like other Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulations, this establishes enforceable legal requirements. For this Subpart, "I" and "you" refer to the owner/operator.
General Information
The provisions of § 270.4 apply to RAPs. (Note: The provisions of § 270.4(a) provide you assurance that, as long as you comply with your RAP, the Division and EPA will consider you in compliance with Subtitle C of RCRA, and will not take enforcement actions against you. However, you should be aware of four exceptions to this provision that are listed in § 270.4.)
Applying for a RAP
To apply for a RAP, you must complete an application, sign it, and submit it to the Director according to the requirements in this subpart.
When a facility or remediation waste management site is owned by one person, but the treatment, storage or disposal activities are operated by another person, it is the operator'sduty to obtain a RAP, except that the owner must also sign the RAP application.
Both the owner and the operator must sign the RAP application and any required reports according to § 270.11(a), (b), and (c). In the application, both the owner and the operator must also make the certification required under § 270.11(d)(1). However, the owner may choose the alternative certification under § 270.11(d)(2) if the operator certifies under § 270.11(d)(1).
You must include the following information in your application for a RAP:
Part 2 (Public Information) of this section allows you to claim as confidential any or all of the information you submit to the Division or EPA under this subsection. You must assert any such claim at the time that you submit your RAP application or other submissions by stamping the words "confidential business information" on each page containing such information. If you do assert a claim at the time you submit the information, DEQ will treat the information according to the procedures in § 270.12 of this rule. If you do not assert a claim at the time you submit the information, the Division may make the information available to the public without further notice to you. DEQ will deny any requests for confidentiality of your name and/or address, or other information which is required to be made accessible under the Arkansas Freedom of Information Act.
You must submit your application for a RAP to the Director for approval.
If you submit your application for a RAP as a part of another document, you must clearly identify the components of that document that constitute your RAP application.
Getting a RAP Approved
If the Director prepares a draft RAP, it must include the:
Once the Director has prepared the draft RAP or notice of intent to deny, he must then:
Your RAP becomes effective on the date the Director serves noticef to you and all commenters that your RAP is approved unless:
You must not begin physical construction of new units permitted under the RAP for treating, storing or disposing of hazardous remediation waste before receiving a finally effective RAP.
How May my RAP be Modified, Revoked and Reissued, or Terminated?
In your RAP, the Director must specify, either directly or by reference, procedures for future modifications, revocations and reissuance, or terminations of your RAP. These procedures must provide adequate opportunities for public review and comment on any modification, revocation and reissuance, or termination that would significantly change your management of your remediation waste, or that otherwise merits public review and comment. If your RAP has been incorporated into a traditional RCRA permit, as allowed under § 270.85(c), then the RAP will be modified according to the applicable requirements in §§ 270.40 through 270.42, revoked and reissued according to the applicable requirements in §§ 270.41 and 270.43, or terminated according to the applicable requirements of § 270.43.
The Director may terminate your final RAP on his own initiative, or deny your renewal application for the same reasons as those listed for RAP modifications in § 270.175(a)(5) through (7) if the Director determines that termination of your RAP or denial of your RAP renewal application is appropriate.
RAPs must be issued for a fixed term, not to exceed 10 years, although they may be renewed upon approval by the Director in fixed increments of no more than ten years. In addition, the Director must review any RAP for hazardous waste land disposal five years after the date of issuance or reissuance and you or the Director must follow the requirements for modifying your RAP as necessary to assure that you continue to comply with currently applicable requirements in RCRA sections 3004 and 3005.
If you wish to renew your expiring RAP, you must follow the process for application for and issuance of RAPs in this subpart.
If you have submitted a timely and complete application for a RAP renewal, but the Director, through no fault of yours, has not issued a new RAP with an effective date on or before the expiration date of your previous RAP, your previous RAP conditions continue in force until the effective date of your new RAP or RAP denial.
Operating Under Your RAP
You are required to keep records of:
The State or EPA Region must report noncompliance with RAPs according to the provisions of § 270.5.
Obtaining a RAP for an Off-Site Location
Note to paragraph (d)(4): Sites located in political jurisdictions other than those listed in Appendix VI of 40 CFR Part 264, are assumed to be in compliance with this requirement.
A RCRA standardized permit (RCRA) is a special type of permit that authorizes you to manage hazardous waste. It is issued under 40 CFR part 124, subsection G, Rule No. 8, and Subsection J of this Section.
The following subsections of this Section 270 apply to a standardized permit:
Applying for a Standardized Permit
You apply for a standardized permit by following the procedures in 40 CFR Part 124, subsection G, Rule No. 8, and this Subsection.
The information in paragraphs (a) through (j) of this section will be the basis of your standardized permit application. You must submit it to the Director when you submit your Notice of Intent under 40 CFR 124.202(b) requesting coverage under a RCRA standardized permit:
You must submit a signed certification based on your audit of your facility's compliance with Section 267.
Information That Must Be Kept at Your Facility
You must keep the following information at your facility:
If you store or treat hazardous waste in containers, you must keep the following information at your facility:
If you use tanks to store or treat hazardous waste, you must keep the following information at your facility:
If your facility has equipment to which Section 264, subsection BB of this Rule applies, you must keep the following information at your facility:
If you have air emission control equipment subject to Section 264, subsection CC of this Rule, you must keep the following information at your facility:
Modifying a Standardized Permit
You can modify your RCRA standardized permit by following the procedures found in 40 CFR 124.211 through 124.214.
"Ampule" means an airtight vial made of glass, plastic, metal, or any combination of these materials.
"Battery" means a device consisting of one or more electrically connected electrochemical cells which is designed to receive, store, and deliver electric energy. An electrochemical cell is a system consisting of an anode, cathode, and an electrolyte, plus such connections (electrical and mechanical) as may be needed to allow the cell to deliver or receive electrical energy. The term battery also includes an intact, unbroken battery from which the electrolyte has been removed.
"Cathode ray tube" or "CRT" means a vacuum tube, composed primarily of glass, which is the video display component of a television or computer monitor. An intact CRT means a CRT remaining inside the monitor whose vacuum has not been released. A broken CRT means glass removed from the monitor after the vacuum has been released.
"Consumer electronic item" means an electronic item or other electronic waste containing an intact or broken cathode ray tube, (e.g., television, computer monitor, or other cathode ray tube monitor or display device), personal computer or computer component, audio and/or stereo player, videocassette recorder/player, digital videodisk (DVD) recorder/player, video camera, telephone, facsimile or copying machine, cellular telephone, wireless paging device, or video game console.
"Destination facility" means a facility that treats, disposes of, or recycles a particular category of universal waste, except those management activities described in subparagraphs (a) and (c) of sections 273.13 and 273.33. A facility at which a particular category of universal waste is only accumulated, is not a destination facility for purposes of managing that category of universal waste.
"FIFRA" means the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (7 U.S.C. 136-136y).
"Generator" means any person, by site, whose act or process produces hazardous waste identified or listed in § 261 of this Rule or whose act first causes a hazardous waste to become subject to rule.
"Lamp", also referred to as "universal waste lamp" is defined as the bulb or tube portion of an electric lighting device. A lamp is specifically designed to produce radiant energy, most often in the ultraviolet, visible, and infra-red regions of the electromagnetic spectrum. Examples of common universal waste electric lamps include, but are not limited to, fluorescent, high intensity discharge, neon, mercury vapor, high pressure sodium, and metal halide lamps.
"Large Quantity Handler of Universal Waste" means a universal waste handler (as defined in this section) who accumulates 5,000 kilograms or more total of universal waste (calculated collectively) at any time. This designation as a large quantity handler of universal waste is retained through the end of the calendar year in which 5,000 kilograms or more total of universal waste is accumulated.
"Mercury-containing device" means a device or a part of a device (including thermostats, but excluding batteries and lamps) which contains elemental mercury integral to its function.
"On-site" means the same or geographically contiguous property which may be divided by public or private right-of-way, provided that the entrance and exit between the properties is at a cross-roads intersection, and access is by crossing as opposed to going along the right of way. Non-contiguous properties owned by the same person but connected by a right-of-way which he controls and to which the public does not have access, are also considered on-site property.
"Pesticide" means any substance or mixture of substances intended for preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating any pest, or intended for use as a plant regulator, defoliant, or desiccant, other than any article that:
"Small Quantity Handler of Universal Waste" means a universal waste handler (as defined in this section) who does not accumulate more than 5,000 kilograms total of universal waste (calculated collectively) at any time.
"Thermostat" means a temperature control device that contains metallic mercury in an ampule attached to a bimetal sensing element, and mercury-containing ampules that have been removed from these temperature control devices in compliance with the requirements of § 273.13(c)(2) or § 273.33(c)(2).
"Universal Waste" means any of the following hazardous wastes that are subject to the universal waste requirements of § 273:
"Universal Waste Transfer Facility" means any transportation-related facility including loading docks, parking areas, storage areas and other similar areas where shipments of universal waste are held during the normal course of transportation for ten days or less.
"Universal Waste Transporter" means a person engaged in the off-site transportation of universal waste by air, rail, highway, or water.
This Subsection applies to small quantity handlers of universal waste (as defined in § 273.9).
A small quantity handler of universal waste is:
A small quantity handler of universal waste is not required to notify the Division of universal waste handling activities.
A small quantity handler of universal waste must label or mark the universal waste to identify the type of universal waste as specified below:
A small quantity handler of universal waste must inform all employees who handle or have responsibility for managing universal waste. The information must describe proper handling and emergency procedures appropriate to the type(s) of universal waste handled at the facility.
A small quantity handler of universal waste is not required to keep records of shipments of universal waste.
A small quantity handler of universal waste who sends universal waste to a foreign destination is subject to the requirements of Section 262, subsection H.
This Subsection applies to large quantity handlers of universal waste (as defined in 273.9).
A large quantity handler of universal waste is:
A large quantity handler of universal waste must label or mark the universal waste to identify the type of universal waste as specified below:
A large quantity handler of universal waste must ensure that all employees are thoroughly familiar with proper waste handling and emergency procedures, relative to their responsibilities during normal facility operations and emergencies.
A large quantity handler of universal waste who sends universal waste to a foreign destination is subject to the requirements of Section 262, subsection H.
This Subsection applies to universal waste transporters (as defined in 273.9).
A universal waste transporter is:
A universal waste transporter transporting a shipment of universal waste to a foreign destination is subject to the requirements of section 262, subsection H.
Persons managing universal waste that is imported from a foreign country into the United States are subject to the requirements of section 262 subsection H and the applicable requirements of this part, immediately after the waste enters the United States, as indicated in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section :
Terms that are defined in §§ 260.10 and 261.1 of this rule and 40 CFR Part 280 have the same meanings when used in this part.
"Aboveground tank" means a tank used to store or process used oil that is not an underground storage tank as defined in 40 CFR 280.12.
"Container" means any portable device in which a material is stored, transported, treated, disposed of, or otherwise handled.
"Do-it-yourselfer used oil collection center" means any site or facility that accepts and/or aggregates and stores used oil collected only from household do-it-yourselfers.
"Existing tank" means a tank that is used for the storage or processing of used oil and that is in operation or for which installation has commenced on or prior to the effective date of the rules in this Section. Installation will be considered to have commenced if the owner or operator has obtained all federal, state, and local approvals or permits necessary to begin installation of the tank and if either (1) a continuous on-site installation program has begun, or (2) the owner or operator has entered into contractual obligations - which cannot be modified or cancelled without substantial loss - for installation of the tank to be completed within a reasonable time.
"Household do-it-yourselfer used oil" means oil that is generated from households, such as used oil generated by individuals who generate used oil through the maintenance of their personal vehicles.
"Household do-it-yourselfer used oil generator" means an individual who generates household do-it-yourselfer used oil.
"New tank" means a tank that will be used to store or process used oil and for which installation has commenced after the effective date of the rules in this Section.
"Petroleum refining facility" means an establishment primarily engaged in producing gasoline, kerosene, distillate fuel oils, residual fuel oils, and lubricants, through fractionation, straight distillation of crude oil, redistillation of unfinished petroleum derivatives, cracking or other processes (i.e., facilities classified as SIC 2911).
"Processing" means chemical or physical operations designed to produce from used oil, or to make used oil more amenable for production of, fuel oils, lubricants, or other used-oil derived products. Processing includes, but is not limited to, blending used oil with virgin petroleum products, blending used oils to meet the fuel specification, filtration, simple distillation, chemical or physical separation, and re-refining.
"Re-refining distillation bottoms" means the heavy fraction produced by vacuum distillation of filtered and dehydrated used oil. The composition of still bottoms varies with column operation and feedstock.
"Tank" means any stationary device, designed to contain an accumulation of used oil which is constructed primarily of non-earthen materials, (e.g., wood, concrete, steel, plastic) which provides structural support.
"Used oil" means any oil that has been refined from crude oil, or any synthetic oil, that has been used and as a result of that use is contaminated by physical or chemical impurities.
"Used oil aggregation point" means any site or facility that accepts, aggregates, and/or stores used oil collected only from other used oil generation sites owned or operated by the owner or operator of the aggregation point, from which used oil is transported to the aggregation point in shipments of no more than 55 gallons. Used oil aggregation points may also accept used oil from household do-it-yourselfers.
"Used oil burner" means a facility where used oil not meeting the specification requirements in § 279.11 is burned for energy recovery in devices identified in § 279.61(a).
"Used oil collection center" means any site or facility that is registered, licensed, permitted, or recognized by a state, county, or municipal government to manage used oil and accepts or aggregates and stores used oil collected from used oil generators regulated under Subsection C of this Section who bring used oil to the collection center in shipment of no more than 55 gallons under the provisions of Section 279.24. Used oil collection centers may also accept used oil from household do-it-yourselfers.
"Used oil fuel marketer" means any person who conducts either of the following activities:
"Used oil generator" means any person, by site, whose act or process produces used oil or whose act first causes used oil to become subject to regulation.
"Used oil processor" or "used oil re-refiner" means a facility that processes used oil.
"Used oil transfer facility" means any transportation related facility including loading docks, parking areas, storage areas and other areas where shipments of used oil are held for more than 24 hours and not longer than 35 days during the normal course of transportation or prior to an activity performed pursuant to § 279.20(b)(2). Transfer facilities that store used oil for more than 35 days are subject to regulation under subsection F of this Section.
"Used oil transporter" means any person who transports used oil, any person who collects used oil from more than one generator and transports the collected oil, and owners and operators of used oil transfer facilities. Used oil transporters may consolidate or aggregate loads of used oil for purposes of transportation but, with the following exception, may not process used oil. Transporters may conduct incidental processing operations that occur in the normal course of used oil transportation (e.g., settling and water separation) but that are not designed to produce (or make more amenable for production of) used oil derived products or used oil fuel.
This section identifies those materials which are subject to regulation as used oil under this
Section. This section also identifies some materials that are not subject to regulation as used oil under this Section, and indicates whether these materials may be subject to regulation as hazardous wastes under Sections 260 through 270 of this rule.
Used oil burned for energy recovery, and any fuel produced from used oil by processing, blending, or other treatment is subject to regulation under this Section unless it is shown not to exceed any of the allowable levels of the constituents and properties shown in Table 1. Once used oil that is to be burned for energy recovery has been shown not to exceed any allowable level and the person making that showing complies with §§ 279.72, 279.73, and 279.74(b), the used oil is no longer subject to this Section.
TABLE 1.
USED OIL NOT EXCEEDING ANY ALLOWABLE LEVEL SHOWN BELOW IS NOT SUBJECT TO THIS SECTION WHEN BURNED FOR ENERGY RECOVERY1
Constituent/Property | Allowable Level |
Arsenic | 5 ppm maximum |
Cadmium | 2 ppm maximum |
Chromium | 10 ppm maximum |
Lead | 100 ppm maximum |
Flash Point | 100 °F minimum |
Total Halogens | 4,000 ppm maximum2 |
Used oil generators are subject to all applicable federal Spill Prevention, Control, and Countermeasures (40 CFR Part 112) in addition to the requirements of this Subsection. Used oil generators are also subject to the Underground Storage Tank (40 CFR Part 280; APC&EC Rule No. 12) standards for used oil stored in underground tanks whether or not the used oil exhibits any characteristics of hazardous waste, in addition to the requirements of this Subsection.
Generators may burn used oil in used oil-fired space heaters provided that:
Except as provided in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, generators must insure that their used oil is transported only by transporters who have obtained EPA Identification numbers.
Used oil transporters are subject to all applicable federal Spill Prevention, Control, and Countermeasures ( 40 CFR Part 112 ) in addition to the requirements of this Subsection. Used oil transporters and transfer facilities are also subject to the Underground Storage Tank ( 40 CFR Part 280 ; APC&EC Rule No. 12) standards for used oil stored in underground tanks whether or not the used oil exhibits any characteristics of hazardous waste, in addition to the requirements of this Subsection.
Transporters who generate residues from the storage or transport of used oil must manage the residues as specified in § 279.10(e).
[Guidance: The emergency coordinator's responsibilities are more fully spelled out in paragraph (b)(6) below. Applicable responsibilities for the emergency coordinator vary, depending on factors such as type and variety of used oil handled by the facility, and type and complexity of the facility.]
Used oil processors/re-refiners are subject to all applicable federal Spill Prevention, Control, and Countermeasures (40 CFR Part 112) in addition to the requirements of this Subsection. Used oil processors/re-refiners are also subject to the Underground Storage Tank ( 40 CFR Part 280 ; APC&EC Rule No. 12) standards for used oil stored in underground tanks whether or not the used oil exhibits any characteristics of hazardous waste, in addition to the requirements of this Subsection.
Owners and operators of used oil processing and re-refining facilities must develop and follow a written analysis plan that will be used to comply with the analysis requirements of § 279.53 and, if applicable, § 279.72. The owner or operator must keep the plan at the facility.
Used oil processors and re-refiners who initiate shipments of used oil off-site must ship the used oil using a used oil transporter who has obtained an EPA identification number.
Owners and operators who generate residues from the storage, processing, or re-refining of used oil must manage the residues as specified in § 279.10(e).
Used oil burners are subject to all applicable federal Spill Prevention, Control, and
Countermeasures (40 CFR Part 112) in addition to the requirements of this Subsection. Used oil burners are also subject to the Underground Storage Tank (40 CFR Part 280; APC&EC Rule No. 12) standards for used oil stored in underground tanks whether or not the used oil exhibits any characteristics of hazardous waste, in addition to the requirements of this Subsection.
Burners who generate residues from the storage or burning of used oil must manage the residues as specified in § 279.10(e).
A used oil fuel marketer may initiate a shipment of off-specification used oil fuel only to a used oil burner who:
The requirements of this Subsection apply to all used oils that are not or cannot be recycled and are therefore being disposed.
The rules under this Chapter are promulgated pursuant to the Arkansas Resource Reclamation Act of 1979 (Act 1098 of 1979; A.C.A. 8-7-301et seq.)
In addition to the definition set forth in § 260.10, all of which apply to this Chapter, the following terms when used in this Chapter shall mean:
The provisions of Arkansas Pollution Control and Ecology Commission Rule No. 7, "Civil Penalties", and Rule No. 8, "Administrative Procedures" apply to this Rule.
I f any provision of this Rule or the application thereof is held invalid, such invalidity shall not effect other provisions of this Rule which can be given effect without the invalid provision or application and to this end the provisions of this Rule are declared to be severable.
These rules and any amendments or revision thereof are effective 10 days after filing the rules or any amendment or revision thereof with the Secretary of State, except as specifically provided below:
118.01.20 Ark. Code R. 002